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Fynjy0 [20]
3 years ago
11

Which accurately explains why fiat money has value

Business
2 answers:
Alla [95]3 years ago
6 0
Possibly medium exchange or lots or loans?
irga5000 [103]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Fiat money has value because the government declares that it has value.

Explanation:

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A grocery store has three open checkout lanes. On average, 45 shoppers arrive at these lanes per hour. The coefficient of variat
nadya68 [22]

Answer:

A.  

0.833

Explanation:

m = 3

Arrival rate, ra = 45 per hour

Service rate, re = 18 per hour per lane

Utilization factor = ra/(m.re)

                            = 45/(3*18)

                            = 0.833

Therefore, The utilization factor of the system is 0.833

6 0
3 years ago
A firm's cost of equity is 22%. Its before-tax cost of debt is 13% and its marginal tax rate is 21%. The firm's capital structur
alisha [4.7K]

Answer:

WACC= 17.95%

Explanation:

Weighted average cost of capital is the average cost of all of the long-term types of finance used by a company weighted according to the that amount of finance used in relation to the total pool of fund.

It is calculated using the formula below:

WACC = (We×Ke)  +  (Wd×Kd)

Ke-cost of equity- 22%

We- equity weight- 100% - 45% = 55%

Kd-After tax cost of debt-10.3%

Wd- 45%

After tax cost of debt = Before tax ×× (1- tax rate)

After tax cost of debt = 13%× (1-0.21) = 10.3%

Cost of equity = 22%

WACC =(0.55× 22%) + (0.45× 13%)=17.95%

WACC= 17.95%

4 0
3 years ago
1 point
gavmur [86]

Answer:

Find attached statement and the question which question number 10.

The correct option is C,$90

Explanation:

In the statement you would notice that the balance transfer from another credit card was $785,upon which balance transfer levy of  $23.55 was  charged(Section 7)

Intuitively, the percentage of balance transfer charge is $23.55 divided by the amount of balance transfer i.e $785

balance transfer charge(%)=$23.55/$785=3%

However, if the balance transfer were $3000,the charge is 3% of $3000 i.e $90 ($3000*3%).

The correct option then is C,$90

Download pdf
8 0
3 years ago
Your corporation has a marginal tax rate of 35% and has purchased preferred stock in another company. The before-tax dividend yi
Leni [432]

Answer:

5.37%

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-

We can calculate the company’s after tax return on preferred by using following formula:-

Company’s After Tax Return = Before Tax Dividend Yield Rate on Preferred Stock × [1 - (1 - Dividend Exclusive) × (Tax Rate)]

= 6% × [1 - (1 - 70%) × (35%)]

= 0.06 × [1 - (1 - 0.70) × (0.35)]

= 0.06 × [1 - (0.30) × (0.35)]

= 0.06 × (1 - 0.105)

= 0.0537

= 5.37%

We simply applied the above formula to determine the company after tax return

8 0
2 years ago
A month ago, you bought a one-year bond with a value of $100 that pays a fixed interest rate of 5 percent per year. The interest
My name is Ann [436]

Answer:

less desirable to other investors

Explanation:

<u>Given</u>: Current fixed coupon rate 5%

           Market rate of interest 5%

           New Market Rate of Interest 6%

Value of a bond is inversely related to economy interest rate or the yield to maturity (YTM). Value of a bond is expressed by the following equation:

B_{0}\ = \frac{C}{(1\ +\ YTM)^{1} }  \ +\ \frac{C}{(1\ +\ YTM)^{2} } \ +....+\ \frac{C}{(1\ +\ YTM)^{n} }\ +\ \frac{RV}{(1\ +\ YTM)^{n} }

wherein, C = Coupon rate of interest

         YTM = Market Rate of Interest or interest rate in the economy or investor's expectation

                n= Years to maturity

             RV = Redemption value

In the given case, C = YTM i.e par value bond. When ytm rises to 6%, the value of the bond shall fall making such a bond less attractive since it represents lower coupon payments than investor expectations.

Thus, now the bond would be less desirable to other investors.

3 0
3 years ago
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