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Lilit [14]
2 years ago
12

WACC and Optimal Capital Structure F. Pierce Products Inc. is considering changing its capital structure. F. Pierce currently ha

s no debt and no preferred stock, but it would like to add some debt to take advantage of low interest rates and the tax shield. Its investment banker has indicated that the pre-tax cost of debt under various possible capital structures would be as follows: Market Debt- to-Value Ratio (wd) Market Equity-to-Value Ratio (ws) Market Debt- to-Equity Ratio (D/S) Before-Tax Cost of Debt (rd) 0.0 1.0 0.00 6.0% 0.2 0.8 0.25 7.0 0.4 0.6 0.67* 8.0 0.6 0.4 1.50 9.0 0.8 0.2 4.00 10.0 * Use the exact value of 2/3 in your calculations. F. Pierce uses the CAPM to estimate its cost of common equity, rs and at the time of the analaysis the risk-free rate is 7%, the market risk premium is 6%, and the company's tax rate is 40%. F. Pierce estimates that its beta now (which is "unlevered" because it currently has no debt) is 1.2. Based on this information, what is the firm's optimal capital structure, and what would be the weighted average cost of capital at the optimal capital structure? Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answers to two decimal places. Debt: % Equity: % WACC: %
Business
1 answer:
den301095 [7]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The firm's optimal capital structure is 80% Debt and 20% Equity.

The WACC at this optimal capital structure is 10.28%.

Explanation:

Note: See the attached excel file the computation of the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) at the optimal capital structure. Also note that the data in the question are merged together but they are sorted in the attached excel file before answering the question.

The optimal capital structure of a firm can be described as a combination of debt and equity financing that is the beat in which market value of the firm is maximized while its cost of capital is minimized.

Using the weighted average cost of capital (WACC), the optimal capital cost capital structure occurs at a point where the WACC is the lowest.

From the attached excel file, the lowest WACC is 0.1028, or 10.28%.  At this firm Market Debt- to-Value Ratio (wd) which is debt is 0.80 (i.e. 80%), and Market Equity-to-Value Ratio (ws) which is equity is 0.20 (i.e. 20%).

Therefore, the firm's optimal capital structure is 80% Debt and 20% Equity.

The WACC at this optimal capital structure is 10.28%.

Download xlsx
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Koby, age 16, works after school at FastFood from 4 p.m. until 11 p.m. On Friday night, therestaurant manager sees that Koby is
guapka [62]

Answer:

find answer in the explanation below

Explanation:

Koby is 16 and that means he is under age for a start. That initial statement makes Fastfood liable.

As it can be seen from the question, the golden rule applies to Koby's case as it is clear he has other things to do with his time.

Primarily, he is a student and that means he has school work to do alongside putting in some hours at Fastfood. But then, he still has the right to be treated right which in this case means him getting some rest. It is therefore safe to say that the manager of Fastfood is trying to take advantage of Koby and should have given him rest.

if he had gotten some rest, he wouldn't have fallen asleep while driving and been in the accident.

Cheers

7 0
2 years ago
The three steps which will create triangular arbitrage profit are as follows: first step, convert ____; second step, convert ___
Vladimir [108]

Answer:

The correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.

Explanation:

A triangular arbitrage can be described as the act of taking advantage of a foreign exchange market arbitrage opportunity created by a pricing difference between three different currencies.

A triangle arbitrage method entails three deals, with the first currency being converted to a second, the second currency being converted to a third, and the third currency being converted to the first.

In the question, USD is the first currency, GBP is the second currency, and CHF is the third currency. Based on the explanation above, the three steps which will create triangular arbitrage profit are as follows: first step, convert <u>USD to GBP</u>; second step, convert <u>GBP to CHF</u>, and third step, convert <u>CHF to USD</u>.

Therefore, the correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.

7 0
2 years ago
Walmart is opening 12 stores to test the concept of walmart express, stores that are one-tenth the size of its supercenters and
Alecsey [184]
The answer that best complete the blank provided above is the term CANNIBALIZATION. Product cannibalization happens when a new product that is being introduced by the same producer, eats up the sales of the other products that exist in the same market resulting in the decrease of the overall sales.
6 0
3 years ago
What is DYS Camp Avery?
Free_Kalibri [48]

Answer:

A facility that will make you wanna do things that you wouldn't. This place will drive you insane, please shoot me

3 0
3 years ago
If $1,000 is deposited in a certain bank account and remains in the account along with any accumulated interest, the dollar amou
Naddika [18.5K]

Answer:

The rate is greater than 8%

Explanation:

Given

\small I = 1,000 \left (\left (1+\frac{r}{100} \right )^{n}-1 \right )

<em>Missing part of question</em>

I =210

n =2

Required

Is r > 1

We have:

\small I = 1,000 \left (\left (1+\frac{r}{100} \right )^{n}-1 \right )

Substitute values for r and I

210 = 1,000 \left (\left (1+\frac{r}{100} \right )^{2}-1 \right )

Divide both sides by 1000

0.210 = \left (\left (1+\frac{r}{100} \right )^{2}-1 \right )

Add 1 to both sides

1.210 = (1+\frac{r}{100} \right ))^{2}

Take square roots of both sides

\sqrt{1.210} = 1+\frac{r}{100}

1.1 = 1+\frac{r}{100}

Subtract 1 from both sides

0.1 = \frac{r}{100}

Multiply both sides by 100

r = 10

10 > 8

<em></em>

<em>Hence, the rate is greater than 8%</em>

7 0
3 years ago
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