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lara31 [8.8K]
2 years ago
10

What did Thomas Paine mean when he said,"The cause of America" is "the cause of all mankind"?

History
2 answers:
Readme [11.4K]2 years ago
3 0
He basically wanted the Americans to unite and form a strong army to defeat the British and grant them independence. So either C or D, I honestly don't know but I seen this.

Oduvanchick [21]2 years ago
3 0

The correct answer is C) People everywhere struggle against oppressive governments.

What Thomas Paine meant when he said, "The cause of America" is "the cause of all mankind" was that "People everywhere struggle against oppressive governments."

One of the most prominent thinkers in the times of the American colonies was Thomas Paine. In January 1776, he published the pamphlet called "Common Sense," in which he invited colonists to support independence from Great Britain. In "Common Sense," he expressed ideas such as "The cause of America is the cause of all mankind," meaning that all oppressive people should raise their voice and fight for their liberty.

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Briefly explain ONE result of either Louis Napoleon's or Otto Von Bismarck's policies that is not mentioned directly in the spee
Ganezh [65]

Answer:

Depending on who you would choose, the answer is:

Louis Napoleon<u><em> just stuck with his writing and abandoned the people by just giving himself all the power in the new government and removing the existing parliamentary assembly. </em></u>And Otto Von Bismarck's Realpolitik result <em><u>was the Kulturkampf. </u></em>

Explanation:

It's clear that both politicians appeal to the people to achieve their goals, but Louis Napoleon and Otto Von Bismarck acted differently. <u><em>The French politician only proposed the reformation but never put in action (it was something that was only on the paper). In the end, Louis Napoleon decided to renew the Assembly. He opted for the easiest way. </em></u>On the other hand, <u><em>Bismarck was greed and violent when it comes to politics. His Realpolitik resulted in an internal war between the government and the Catholic Church, which became known as the Kulturkampf.</em></u>

8 0
3 years ago
Paragraph answer please ASAP
Allushta [10]

Anti-Federalists argued that

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8 0
2 years ago
What was required of people who wanted to settle in Texas before the Mexican Revolution?
HACTEHA [7]
People who wanted to settle in Texas before the Mexican Revolution had to "<span>declare they would become loyal Spanish subjects," since Spain had been dealing with too many "trouble makers" in the region. </span>
7 0
3 years ago
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What was the purpose of the League of Nations? Do we have something similar to this today? In your opinion, is the concept of a
irinina [24]
The League of Nations was established after WW1 to keep peace. There is currently a “United Nations” there goal is to promote peace and prevent war through diplomacy, just as the League of Nations.

Now whether or not you believe the concept of a League of Nations is good or bad is up to you, i hope this helped! :)
6 0
3 years ago
How did the grandfather clause, which was enacted in southern states during Reconstruction, stop certain races of people from vo
yanalaym [24]

Answer:

C.)Citizens had to pass literacy tests to vote, but those who had ancestors who were eligible to vote were exempt from tests. This meant many blacks could not vote because they could not read and only had ancestors who were slaves and who therefore were ineligible to vote.

Explanation:

The Grandfather clause, which was enacted in southern states during Reconstruction, stop certain races of people from voting by ensuring "Citizens had to pass literacy tests to vote, but those who had ancestors who were eligible to vote were exempt from tests. This meant many blacks could not vote because they could not read and only had ancestors who were slaves and who therefore were ineligible to vote."

The Grandfather clause was made in the Southern part of the United States in 1895 and existed till 1910. The purpose is to deny African Americans from voting. It stated that anybody who had in the past held the right to vote before the period of 1866 or 1867, and their lineal descendants would be free from necessarily meeting the educational, property, or tax requirements for voting.

5 0
2 years ago
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