Answer:
Purchases she could have made with $30,000 plus the earnings foregone
Explanation:
Opportunity cost refers to the benefit obtained from the next best alternative.
Here, the opportunity cost of spending a year in the college is the purchases worth of $30,000 that she would have do it and the money income that she would have earned it.
Opportunity cost can be represented in terms of monetary and non monetary.
Its the the second step,
1. Identify critical information
2. Analyze threats
3. Analyze vulnerabilities
4. Assess risk
5. Apply OPSEC measures
Answer: The answer is as follows:
Explanation:
(1) When the consumers buy tablet computers, so this exchange will be occurs in the product market because there is a exchange of goods and services between the two parties that the buyer of tablet computers and seller of the same. Product market refers to the market at which there is a buying and selling of goods and services.
(2) Whereas the resources that are used to produce the tablet computers are bought and sold in the factor market. Factor market refers to the market in which there is a buying and selling of inputs that are used to produce certain products.
Answer:
a.) Raw material 210000
Account payable 210000
(Purchase material on account)
b.) 1.Work in process 151200
Raw material 151200
(material used)
2.Overhead 37800
Raw material 37800
(Record indirect material )
c.)1. Work in process 49000
Factory payroll 49000
(Record direct labor)
2. Overhead 20000
Factory payroll 20000
(Record indirect labor)
d.) Overhead 106000
Accumulated depreciation 106000
(record depreciation)
e.) Overhead 130000
Account Payable 130000
f.) work in process (8*76400) 611200
Overhead 611200
g.) Finished goods 511000
Work in process 511000
( record completion of goods from wip to finished goods)
h.)Account receivable 605680
Sales 6056800
(record sales on account)
Explanation:
f.Overhead applied to a particular job= Predetermined rate* job hours allocated
h. copmlete job were shipped to customer at 34% above cost =(452000*34%)=452000+153680=605680.
Answer:
= $832s
Explanation:
CI = 5000*(1+8/100)^2
=5832 -5000
= $832s
There is a difference between the CI and SI. For SI principal remains the same each year. However, when we deal with CI then the new principal is the starting principal plus the interest. And that is the difference between the two. Also, the formula hence for CI is:
CI= P(1 +R/100)^N -P
SI= PRT/100