Answer:
The correct answer is option c.
Explanation:
The variable costs are the cost incurred on the variable factors of production. The fixed costs are the costs incurred on the fixed factors.
In the short run, there are certain factors that are fixed and others that are variable. So in the short run, some costs are fixed and others are variable.
But in the long run, there is enough time for all the factors to be changed. So all the factors are variable and cost incurred on these variables is also variable.
So we can say that in the long run, there are no fixed costs.
Answer:
Explanation:
a.)
Dividend discount model(DDM) is used to determine the price of a stock.
The formula is as follows;
Price ;P0 = D1 /(r-g)
D1 = Dividend in year 1
r = capitalization rate or required rate of return
g = dividend growth rate
P0 = 8/( 0.10-0.05)
P0 = 160.
The price of the Fi corporation's stock is therefore $160.
b.)
Use the formula that shows the relationship between ROE , retention rate and growth rate. It's as follows;
g = ROE *b
g = growth rate
b = retention rate
Given Earnings per Share (EPS) = $12 and dividend = $8, find dividend payout ratio first.
retention ratio = (1 -dividend payout ratio)
dividend payout ratio = 8/12 = 0.667 or 66.7%
retention ratio ; b = (1 -0.667)
b = 0.333 or 33.3%
Plug it in the formula;
0.05 = ROE * 0.333
ROE = 0.05/0.333
ROE = 0.15 or 15%
c.)
This question is asking for the Present Value of Growth Opportunity (PVGO)
The formula is as follows;
PVGO = Price - EPS1 /r
Price = $160 (from part a)
Expected earnings per share (EPS) = $12
required rate of return(capitalization rate) ; r = 10% or 0.10 as a decimal
PVGO = 160 - 12/0.10
PVGO = 160 -120
PVGO = $40
Therefore, the market is paying $40 per share for growth opportunities.
Answer: (a) CM ratio = 40, break even point in balls = 21,000 balls (b ) degree of operating leverage = 3
Explanation:
(a) To calculate the CM ratio , we use the formula
Selling price - variable expenses / selling price
Selling price = $25, variable expenses = $15
= (25 - 15 )/ 25
= 10 / 25
= 0.4 × 100
= 40
To calculate the break -even points in balls, we use the formula
Break even point = fixed cost / contribution per unit
Fixed cost = $210,000, Contribution per unit = (25 -15) = 10
210,000 / 10
= 21,000 balls
(b) To calculate the degree of operating leverage last year, we use the formula
Contribution margin / net income
Contribution margin =$300,000, net income = 90,000
= 300,000 / 90,000
= 3.33
= 3
Answer:
9.14%
Explanation:
The computation of the weighted average cost of capital is shown below:-
Debt = $500,000 × 1.02
= $0.51 m
Preferred = 40,000 × $34
= $1.36 m
Common = 104,000 × $20
= $2.08 m
Total = $0.51 m + $1.36 m + $2.08 m
= $3.95 m
So, Weighted average cost of capital = ($2.08 ÷ $3.95 m × 0.11) + ($1.36 m ÷ $3.95 m × 0.08) + (($0.51 m ÷ 3.95 m × 0.07 × (1 - 0.34))
= 0.057924 + 0.027544 + 0.005965
= 0.091433
or 9.14%
Therefore for computing the weighted average cost of capital we simply applied the above equation.
