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3 years ago

The topic of email is written in _________________.

Business

2 answers:

artcher [175]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

C. Subject box

Explanation:

The CC box is the carbon copy box. This is where you put other people's emails. They will receive a copy of the email, and they will be able to see who else received the copy.

The BCC box is the blind carbon copy box. This is also where you can put other people's emails. They will receive a copy, but they can't see the others who also got the copy, hence the name blind carbon copy.

The subject box is where you write the subject or topic of the email. This tells the recipients what the email is about, before they begin reading it.

Therefore, the best choice is C: subject box.

horrorfan [7]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

the subject box is where you write your topic of email

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Purpose of Assignment The purpose of this assignment is for students to employ capital budgeting techniques using time value of

garik1379 [7]

Answer:

Present Value 5,715,331.32

We are going to accept the project only if the initial investment is at 5,715,331 or below in order to achieve the return to support the cost of capital structure of the company

Accepting a project with a higher cost will not generate enought cashflow to sustain the patyment of debt and the return expected from the stockholders therefore, will generate a economic result and investor will leave the company for other which can sustain their desired return.

Explanation:

We are going to discount the yearly cash-flow at the given rate of 12.50%

then, the terminal value which is the present value of the future period will also be discounted at this rate.

The sum of all this will be the present value of the firm.

$\left[\begin{array}{ccc}$Year&$Cash Flow&$Discounted\\1&575000&511111.11\\2&625000&493827.16\\3&650000&456515.77\\4&725000&452613.93\\5&850000&471689.61\\$terminal&6000000&3329573.74\\Present&Value&5715331.32\\\end{array}\right]$

The formula we use the present value of a lump sum:

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

We are going to accept the project only if the initial investment is at 5,715,331 or below in order to achieve the return to support the cost of capital estructure of the company

3 0

3 years ago

Please subscribe to my mom channel please I need 100 subscribe

Contact [7]

Ok i will subscribe too!!

8 0

3 years ago

Dukes Corporation used a predetermined overhead rate this year of $2 per direct labor-hour, based on an estimate of 20,000 direc

astraxan [27]

Answer:

Under allocation= 1,000 underallocated

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Dukes Corporation used a predetermined overhead rate this year of $2 per direct labor-hour, based on an estimate of 20,000 direct labor-hours to be worked during the year. Actual costs and activity during the year were: Actual manufacturing overhead cost incurred $ 38,000 Actual direct labor-hours worked 18,500

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 2*18,500= $37,000

Real overhead= 38,000

Over/under allocation= real MOH - allocated MOH

Under allocation= 38,000 - 37,000= 1,000 underallocated

5 0

3 years ago

At December 31, 2019, Oriole Corporation had the following stock outstanding. 10% cumulative preferred stock, $100 par, 109,261

solong [7]

Answer:

The company should report the 03 EPS figures on its 2020 income statement:

EPS continuing operations = $3.64

EPS discontinued operations = $(0.54)

EPS net income = EPS continuing operations + EPS discontinued operations = $3.10

Explanation:

* Calculation in EPS continuing operations:

EPS continuing operations = (Net income from continuing operation - preferred dividend)/No. of common shares outstanding

in which: Net income from continuing operation = Income from continuing operations before taxes * (1- tax rate) = 24,649,800 * (1-35%) = $16,022,370

preferred dividend = $1,092,610

No. of common shares outstanding = 4,099,840

EPS continuing operations = ($16,022,370 - $1,092,610) / 4,099,840= $3.64

* Calculation in EPS discontinued operations:

EPS discontinued operations = Net income from discontinuing operation /No. of common shares outstanding

in which: Net income from continuing operation = Income from discontinuing operations before taxes * (1- tax rate) = (3,399,100) * (1-35%) = $(2,209,415)

No. of common shares outstanding = 4,099,840

EPS discontinued operations = (2,209,415)/ 4,099,840 = $(0.54)

5 0

3 years ago

Security M has expected return of 17% and standard deviation of 32%. Security S has expected return of 13% and standard deviatio

Murljashka [212]

Answer:

0.047424

Explanation:

Given that

Expected return of security M = 17%

Standard deviation of Security M = 32%

Expected return of security S = 13%

Standard deviation of security S = 19%

And, the correlation coefficient = 0.78

So, by considering the above information the co variance is

= Correlation coefficient × Standard deviation of Security M × Standard deviation of security S

= 0.78 × 0.32 × 0.19

= 0.047424

5 0

3 years ago