Answer:
17.) A = 17.5 cm squared
18.) A = 36
Step-by-step explanation:
17.) 7 x 5 x 1/2
7 x 5 = 35
35 x 1/2 = 17.5
18.) 8 x 9 x 1/2
8 x 9 = 72
72 x 1/2 = 36
I hope this helped. I am sorry if you get this wrong.
Answer:
5% probability neither truck is available
Step-by-step explanation:
We solve this problem building the Venn's diagram of these probabilities.
I am going to say that:
A is the probability that the first truck is available.
B is the probability that the second truck is available.
We have that:

In which a is the probability that the first truck is available and the second one is not
is the probability that both trucks are available.
By the same logic, we have that:

The probability that both trucks are available is .30.
This means that 
The probability the second truck is available is .50
This means that
. So



The probability the first truck is available is .75
This means that
. So



The probability that at least one truck is available is:

The probability that neither truck is available is:

5% probability neither truck is available
First years flies = 6,692 miles ≈7000 miles.
Second year flies = 16,429 miles ≈ 16000.
Third year flies = 24,211 miles ≈ 24000
Total number of miles flies in first and second year = 7,000miles +16,000 miles
Number of more miles he flew in the third year than the first and second year combined = Number of miles flies in third year - Total number of miles flies in first and second year
Number of more miles he flew in the third year than the first and second year combined 24,000 - (7,000+16,000)
Therefore, 24,000 - (7,000+16,000) estimation of how many more miles he flew in the third year than the first and second year combined.
Answer: q³⁰
Explanation:
First just solve the first part using the exponent rules
p²q⁵ becomes 1/p-⁸q-²⁰ then we flip the fraction so the exponents become positive. Now we have p⁸q²⁰.
Before multiplying the other equation, we must simplify. p-⁴q⁵ becomes 1/p⁴q-⁵ and since it's the exponents being raised to a power we simply multiply the inner exponents times the outer exponent which yields 1/p⁸q-¹⁰. We must make q-¹⁰ positive so we will then bring it to the numerator of the fraction which gives us: q¹⁰/p⁸.
Multiply q¹⁰/p⁸ * p⁸q²⁰/1 = p⁸q³⁰/p⁸ divide the p exponents by each other which yields 0 since when u divide exponents you just subtract them so 8 - 8 = 0. Your answer is now q³⁰/1 or just q³⁰
Answer:
Your answer would be 9.
Step-by-step explanation:
You always do parenthesis first, 9-6 is 3, then you would do division 3÷3 is 1 then you multiply 4×2 and that would be 8, finally you would at the 8 and the 1 and that would give you 9 as your answer. Hope this helps