A I believe, sorry if I’m wrong
Answer:
−π
----
4
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
That is a 45 45 90 triangle.
The legs of such a triangle equal the hypotenuse divided by the sq root of 2
So each leg equals 125.5 cm divided by
<span>
<span>
<span>
1.4142135624
</span>
</span>
</span>
which equals
<span>
<span>
<span>
88.7419010389
</span>
</span>
</span>
or to the nearest 100th of a centimeter:
88.74
Set up a proportion: 25/100 = 50/n where n = # of teens surveyed
Simplify fraction: 1/4 = 50/n
Cross multiply: n = 200
So 200 teens were surveyed.