The answer is b, tell me if you don't understand.
So for this, we will be using synthetic division. To set it up, have the equation so that the divisor is -10 (since that is the solution of k + 10 = 0) and the dividend are the coefficients. Our equation will look as such:
<em>(Note that synthetic division can only be used when the divisor is a 1st degree binomial)</em>
- -10 | 1 + 2 - 82 - 28
- ---------------------------
Now firstly, drop the 1:
- -10 | 1 + 2 - 82 - 28
- ↓
- -------------------------
- 1
Next, you are going to multiply -10 and 1, and then combine the product with 2.
- -10 | 1 + 2 - 82 - 28
- ↓ - 10
- -------------------------
- 1 - 8
Next, multiply -10 and -8, then combine the product with -82:
- -10 | 1 + 2 - 82 - 28
- ↓ -10 + 80
- -------------------------
- 1 - 8 - 2
Next, multiply -10 and -2, then combine the product with -28:
- -10 | 1 + 2 - 82 - 28
- ↓ -10 + 80 + 20
- -------------------------
- 1 - 8 - 2 - 8
Now, since we know that the degree of the dividend is 3, this means that the degree of the quotient is 2. Using this, the first 3 terms are k^2, k, and the constant, or in this case k² - 8k - 2. Now what about the last coefficient -8? Well this is our remainder, and will be written as -8/(k + 10).
<u>Putting it together, the quotient is
</u>
Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:
So we know that:

To reflect across the <em>y-axis</em>, instead of x, use -x. Therefore:

Simplify:

And that's our answer :)
yes because its the square root. hope it helps
Answer:3.6
Step-by-step explanation: