-2 (x+1)= -8x+1
-2x-2= -8x+1
+2x. +2x
-2= -6x+1
-1. -1
-3= -6x
÷-6
x=.5
X=0.5
Answer:
absolutely yes, because pythagorean theorem is used in a right triangle
and when we match a line from the tee to the hole, we have a right triangle
Step-by-step explanation:
Just study
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Answer:
-8
Step-by-step explanation:
I believe it is -8
first you 2(-2) - 4
then you -4 -4= -8
Hope that was helpful.
If f(x) is the inverse of g(x), then f(g(x))=f(g(x))=x
or we can do it the hard way and solve for the inverses (I'm too lazy to do that)
I'm assuming you means g(x)=(x-4)/2
so
show that f(g(x))=g(f(x))=x
first do f(g(x))
f(g(x))=2((x-4)/2)+4
f(g(x))=x-4+4
f(g(x))=x
g(f(x))=(2x+4-4)/2
g(f(x))=(2x)/2
g(f(x))=x
both equal x and x=x so f(g(x))=f(g(x))=x
they are iinverses
if you did want to solve then
do, f(x)=y, then swtich all x and y then solve for x
example
f(x)=2x+4 then y=2x+4 then x=2y+4 then x-4=2y then (x-4)/2=y=g(x)
then reverse it to get the other inverse thing