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Karolina [17]
3 years ago
15

At year-end, Yates Company estimates that $1,500 of its accounts receivable balance is uncollectible. Yates uses the allowance m

ethod to account for bad debts. The entry to record this adjusting entry would include a:
Business
1 answer:
erastova [34]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

debit to Bad Debts Expense and credit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts

Explanation:

Based on the information provided for this scenario it can be said that the entry to record this adjusting entry would include a debit to Bad Debts Expense and credit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts. Meaning that the bad debts expense is increasing while the same amount is being taken from the allowance for doubtful accounts. This is what the allowance method is used for, it provides an advance for uncollectible accounts, by setting aside money in a reserve account.

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Savallas Company is highly automated and uses computers to control manufacturing operations. The company uses a job-order costin
Setler79 [48]

Answer:

Part 1.  Compute the company%u2019s predetermined overhead rate for the year

Predetermined overhead rate  = $15 / Computer Hour

Part 2. Compute the underapplied or overapplied overhead for the year.

Underapplied Overheads are: $1,350,000 -  $900,000 = $450,000

Part 3.  Assume the company closes any underapplied or overapplied overhead directly to cost of goods sold. Prepare the appropriate journal entry.

Cost of goods sold $450,000 (debit)

Overhead Account $450,000 (credit)

Part 4. Company allocates any underapplied or overapplied overhead to work in process, finished goods, and cost of goods sold on the basis of the amount of overhead applied during the year that remains in each account at the end of the year:

Work In Process $18,000 (debit)

Finished Goods $73,008 (debit)

Cost of Goods Sold $315,000 (debit)

Overhead Account $450,000(credit)

Explanation:

Part 1.  Compute the company%u2019s predetermined overhead rate for the year

Predetermined overhead rate = Budgeted Overheads / Budgeted Activity

                                                    = $1,275,000/ 85,000

                                                    = $15 / Computer Hour

Part 2. Compute the underapplied or overapplied overhead for the year.

Applied Overheads = Actual hours × Predetermined overhead rate

                                 = 60,000 × $15

                                 =  $900,000

Actual Overheads = given = $1,350,000

Applied Overheads $900,000 < Actual Overheads $1,350,000, thus we have an underapplied situation

Therefore Underapplied Overheads are: $1,350,000 -  $900,000 = $450,000

Part 3.  Assume the company closes any underapplied or overapplied overhead directly to cost of goods sold. Prepare the appropriate journal entry.

Cost of goods sold $450,000 (debit)

Overhead Account $450,000 (credit)

Part 4. Company allocates any underapplied or overapplied overhead to work in process, finished goods, and cost of goods sold on the basis of the amount of overhead applied during the year that remains in each account at the end of the year:

Allocations:

                                         Totals          Weighted Average%       Allocation

Work In Process              $43,200                   4%                           $18,000

Finished Goods              $280,800               26%                           $73,008

Cost of Goods Sold        $756,000               70%                          $315,000

Total                                $1,080,000            100%                         $450,000

Journals:

Work In Process $18,000 (debit)

Finished Goods $73,008 (debit)

Cost of Goods Sold $315,000 (debit)

Overhead Account $450,000(credit)

5 0
3 years ago
Who want to teach me for be a hacker <br> im a good boy
mestny [16]

Ok ill teach ya then

Explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
Nature’s Crunch is currently the only certified organic produce grower in a region that produces lots of non-organic produce alt
aliya0001 [1]

Answer:

The correct answers are letters: "A", "B", "C", and "D".    

Explanation:

As a monopoly, Nature's Crunch will be benefited in profit terms if any chemical involved non-organic vegetables growing process is affected somehow. Then, <em>a tomato blight affecting chemically treated plants, an increase in the cost of chemical pesticides, and a new report about the environmental dangers of chemically treated plants</em> would automatically generate more sales for Nature's Crunch. Besides, it does not matter under what scenario, <em>income tax cuts</em> <em>for all consumers</em> will generate more revenue both for organic and non-organic industries.

7 0
3 years ago
Airborne Airlines Inc. has a $1,000 par value bond outstanding with 10 years to maturity. The bond carries an annual interest pa
yanalaym [24]

Answer:Yield to maturity is 9.59%;  After tax cost of debt =7.672%

Explanation:

 A)   Yield to maturity ={ C + (FV-PV)/t} /  {(FV +PV)/2}

Where C – Interest payment    = $90

FV – Face value of the security

= $1000

PV – Present value/curent market value = $960

t – years it takes the security to reach maturity= 10 years

imputing the values and calculating,

yield to maturity ={ C + (FV-PV)/t} /  {(FV +PV)/2}

= $90 + (1000-960)/10} / 1000 + 960 /2

$90 + 4= $94 /980= 0.0959

therefore Yield to maturity is 9.59%

B)   After tax cost of debt =    Yield To Maturity  x (1 - tax rate)

=9.59% x (1-20%)= 9.59% x (1-0.2 )= 9.59% x 0.8 =

9.59 % x 80%=7.672%

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose the manager agrees to pay each employee a​ $50 bonus if they meet a certain goal. on a typical​ saturday, the​ oil-chang
Sergeeva-Olga [200]

Answer:

Incomplete question

First aspect of the question is typed below.

The shape of the distribution of the time required to get an oil change at a 20-minute oil-change facility

is unknown. However, records indicate that the mean time is 2l.2-minutes, and the standard deviation 3.5 minutes.

Explanation:

Employees bonus $50

35 oil changes between 10:00 am to 12:00pm

n = 35

10% changes

So, the z - score can be calculated using

z-score = InvNorm(0.10)

z-score = -1.28

So, given that,

Standard deviation is 3.5minutes

σ = 3.5 minutes

Mean time is 21.2 minutes

μx = 21.2 minutes

Then,

σx = σ / √n

σx = 3.5 / √35

σx = 0.5916 minutes

Then, Z score can be written as

Z = (x - μx) / σx

-1.28 =  (x - 21.2) / 0.5916

Cross multiply

-1.28 × 0.5916 = x - 21.2

-0.7573 = x - 21.2

x = 21.2 - 0.7573

x = 20.443 minutes

There is a 10% chance of being at or below a mean oil-change time of 20.44 minutes

5 0
3 years ago
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