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MrMuchimi
4 years ago
7

Why did Japan sign unequal treaties with the United states

History
2 answers:
nordsb [41]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

its (C)hicken

Explanation:

Lina20 [59]4 years ago
3 0

The correct answer is C) Japan wanted to avoid extraterritoriality like what China suffered.

<em>Japan signed unequal treaties with the United States because Japan wanted to avoid extraterritoriality like what China suffered. </em>

The Harris Treaty between Japan and the United States was signed on July 29, 1858, in what now is Tokyo. The treaty opened trade ports in Japan to establish commerce with the world, principally with the United States that was very interested in the coal mines of Japan. The ports ready to improve trade were the ports of Shimoda, Kanagawa, Nagasaki, and Hakodate.    

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Which is not an example of an externality
Hitman42 [59]

Answer:

D.

Explanation:

Externality

This is a result of industrial or commercial activity which affects other parties without this being reflected in market prices. It is used to refer to the cost or benefit received by a third party. In a externality situation, the third party has no control over the creation of the cost or benefits.

Roads maintained with tax on gasoline has no externality. This is because the tax is imposed on the road users through tax. There is no third party benefiting or incurring cost from the maintenance of of road with tax on gasoline.

Apart from the other options which are good examples of externality, a common one used to explain the term is a person smoking cigarette, which can create passive smoking for those around.

8 0
3 years ago
Someone help a not A btw
Nady [450]
The answer is B!

Hope it helps!
6 0
3 years ago
Why was texas a source of conflict between the united states and mexico
Maksim231197 [3]

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Explanation:

Mexico feared that they would lose Texas to the United States, so they started enforcing laws that had been ignored. Fighting at the Alamo inspired Texans to win their independence because it fueled rage of Texas.

5 0
4 years ago
The Supreme Court ruled in Gideon v. Wainwright (1963) that Gideon had been denied his rights because he had
Colt1911 [192]
I believe the answer is <span>represented himself in court.
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Later on, the supreme court decided that the court must provide a defense lawyer for those who couldn't afford any, and Gideon was Acquited on the second trial.
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7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
60 points!!!
Aneli [31]
It should be <span>United States colonization of Cuba</span>
5 0
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