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Darya [45]
3 years ago
12

How to make 27/102 into a simplest form and 16/32 into simplest form?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Reil [10]3 years ago
7 0
My caculator got 9/34
kirill115 [55]3 years ago
4 0
My calculator got 3/34
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The formula that describes an objects motion is given by s=ut+1/2at^2, where s is the distance traveled, u is the initial veloci
attashe74 [19]
We have the following equation:
 s = ut + 1 / 2at ^ 2
 Clear a for the equation:
 1 / 2at ^ 2 = s-ut
 at ^ 2 = 2s-2ut
 a = 2s / t ^ 2-2ut / t ^ 2
 Rewriting:
 a = (2s-2ut) / (t ^ 2)
 Answer:
 
An equation that represents a in terms of other variables is:
 
C. 2s-2ut / t ^ 2
6 0
3 years ago
Can someone help find the circumference and area of this??? ​
disa [49]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

area formula is

πr^{2}

plug in values:

9π

which equals

28.2743339

or you can write 9π im not sure what your teacher prefers

circumference formula is

2πr

which equals

6π

or

18.8495559

5 0
3 years ago
QUESTION<br> Write the fraction<br> 6<br> in simplest form.<br> 30<br> EXPLANATION
balu736 [363]
Can you please elaborate on that because 6 is at is simplest form and it it were to be a fraction it would be 6/1 which equals 6
5 0
3 years ago
Problem 15.2. A nautical mile is a unit of distance frequently used in ocean navigation. It is defined as the length of an arc s
Stels [109]

Answer:

a) 6080 ft

b) 29.952 mph = 30 mph to 2s.f

c) 15.6 knots

Step-by-step explanation:

Length of an arc is given as (θ/360) × (2πr)

For a nautical mile, θ = 1' = (1/60)° = 0.01667°

Length of a nautical mile = (0.01667/360) × (2π × 3960) = 1.152 miles

1 mile = 5280 ft

1.152 miles = 5280×1.152 = 6082.1 ft = 6080 ft to the nearest 10 feet.

b) 1 knot = 1 nautical mile/hour

1 nautical mile/hour = 1.152 miles/hour (from part (a))

1 knot = 1.152 miles/hour

26 knots = 26 × 1.152 miles/hour = 29.952 mph = 30 mph to 2 s.f

c) 1.152 mph = 1 knot

18 mph = (18×1/1.152) knots = 15.625 knots

8 0
3 years ago
Regina has a bag of marbles that contains 3 blue marbles, 4 red marbles, and 5 yellow marbles. She draws one marble, then replac
iVinArrow [24]

Answer:  

Possible outcomes=12

P(\text{Blue marble first})=\frac{1}{4}

P(\text{Yellow marble})=\frac{5}{12}

P(\text{ Blue then yellow})=\frac{5}{48}

Step-by-step explanation:

We can see these two events are independent as Regina replaced marble after drawing one marble.

We can find possible outcomes by adding number of blue, red and yellow marbles.

\text{Possible outcomes}=3+4+5=12

Let us find probability of getting a blue marble on first draw.

P(\text{Blue marble})=\frac{3}{(3+4+5)} =\frac{3}{12} =\frac{1}{4}

Now we will find probability of getting yellow marble.

P(\text{Yellow marble})=\frac{5}{(3+4+5)} =\frac{5}{12}

We can find probability of getting a blue marble and then yellow marble by multiplying both probabilities.

P(\text{ Blue then yellow})=\frac{1}{4}* \frac{5}{12} =\frac{5}{48}

Therefore, probability of getting a blue marble and then yellow marble is \frac{5}{48}.

6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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