Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6
Answer:
8x+40=56
Step-by-step explanation:
You have to distribute the 8
Then finish the rest of the problem
Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
We want to solve the equation:
To do so, we can rewrite the equation.
Recall the double-angle for sine:
By substitution:
Distribute:
We can subtract 3cos(x) from both sides:
And factor:
Hence, our answer is A.
*It is important to note that we should not divide both sides by cos(x) to acquire 10sin(x) = 3. This is because we need to find the values of x, and one or more may result in cos(x) = 0, and we cannot divide by 0. Hence, we should subtract and then factor.
Depending on how far it goes up and over up/run is the m and the y is were it touches the y axis
