What would be different is The money she has
Answer:
take the payments over time payout
Explanation:
My personal opinion/advice would be to take the payments over time payout. There are many reasons for this, the first one being that most individuals are not used to receiving large sums of cash and usually end up wasting all the money as soon as they receive it, which usually does not occur if the payments are made over time. The second and more important reason is that if the payments are made over different years your would pay a much lesser amount on taxes every year that passes. This means that the even with the interest rate you would most likely have more overall money if you take the payments over time.
Things that would cause prices to drop would be the quantity if there is more of that thing the price drops or the value of that thing just drops.
Based on the percentage of readers who own a particular make of the car and the random sample, we can infer that there is sufficient evidence at a 0.02 level to support the executive claim.
<h3>What is the evidence to support the executive's claim?</h3>
The hypothesis is:
Null hypothesis : P = 0.55
Alternate hypothesis : P ≠ 0.55
We then need to find the test statistic:
= (Probability found by marketing executive - Probability from publisher) / √( (Probability from publisher x (1 - Probability from publisher))/ number of people sampled
= (0.46 - 0.55) / √(( 0.55 x ( 1 - 0.55)) / 200
= -2.56
Using this z value as the test statistic, perform a two-tailed test to show:
= P( Z < -2.56) + P(Z > 2.56)
= 0.0052 + 0.0052
= 0.0104
The p-value is 0.0104 which is less than the significance level of 0.02. This means that we reject the null hypothesis.
The Marketing executive was correct.
Find out more on the null and alternate hypothesis at brainly.com/question/25263462
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Answer:
4.51
Explanation:
We have to calculate fva. The future value of annuity
Here is the formula
Fva = A [( + I)^n-1/I]
Where a = annuity
I = interest rate
N = number of years
Inserting into formula
1[(1+0.08)^4 - 1/0.08]
= 1[(1.36049 - 1)/0.08]
= 4.51
Therefore the future investment is $4.51
