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Answer:
Diversification for pooling risks
Explanation:
When a company wants to diversify it goes into various products in order to reach a larger market. This is the opposite of specialisation where the company focuses on one market or product.
When a company wants to diversify it will not be a good idea to do it because they want to pool risk.
Pooling of risk involves centralisation of process so that risk due to variability will be reduced.
Diversifying will increase risk due to variability.
Answer:
b. 6 pairs of jeans per crate of olives; and
c. 4 pairs of jeans per crate of olives
Explanation:
Olives Jeans Trade off Ratio (Olives:Jeans)
Spain 1 3 1:3 or 0.33:1 (1/3 = 0.33)
Denmark 1 11 1:11 or 0.09:1 (1/11= 0.09)
Spain & Denmark have less opportunity cost & hence comparative advantage than each other, in Olive & Jeans respectively.
Spain will export Olives to Denmark (importer). Denmark will export Jeans to Spain (Importer). Trade will be gainful if they get exchange ratio better than domestic exchange ratio.
- '2 jeans pairs per olive crate' not gainful trade ratio for Spain, as it is getting more i.e 3 jeans pair per olive crate at its own domestic ratio.
- '13 jeans per olive' not gainful for Denmark, as 0.07 = (1/13) olive per jeans is worse than its own domestic ratio i.e 0.09 = (1/11) olive per jeans
'4 jeans pairs per olive crate' is gaining trade ratio for:
- Spain: As it gets 4 i.e more than 3 pairs of jeans per olive crate
- Denmark : As it gets 0.25 = (1/4) i.e more than 0.09 olive crates per pair of jeans
'6 jeans pairs per olive crate' is gaining trade ratio for:
- Spain: As it gets 6 i.e more than 3 pairs of jeans per olive crate
- Denmark : As it gets 0.16 = (1/6) i.e more than 0.09 olive crates per pair of jeans
Both of them are gainful trade ratios, but:
- 1olive:4 jeans is more gainful for Denmark, as it is gaining relatively more than domestic exchange rate (0.25 is more > 0.09 than 4 > 3).
- 1olive:6jeans is more gainful for Spain as it is gaining relatively more than domestic exchange rate (6 is more > 3 than 0.16 > 0.09)
Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
a)
In IFRS according to IAS 19 all past service cost is recognized in the net income in the period in which amendment (change) is made by entity for defined benefit pension, it does not matter what is the status of the employees who will benefit the change. So in Year 1 $150000 will be expended completely and in subsequent years the amount is $0
Year 1 =$150000
Subsequent years= $0
b) In US GAAP the past service cost is recorded in Accumulated other comprehensive income in the year of amendment. It is amortized over the future working life of the participants.
Year 1 is year of adoption hence $0 is amortized because $150000 is included in Accumulated other comprehensive income.
Subsequent years: (150000/10=15000) $15000 will be amortized for each year for 10 years.
Answer: Logistic regression
Explanation:
The type of model that the student group can utilize to analyze which features are important for explaining whether someone opens a promotional email is the logistic regression.
Logistic regression is the regression analysis that's used to conduct in a case whereby the dependent variable is binary.
With regards to the question, the logistic regression can provide the best model which will be used to forecast the most important features for the opening of the promotional e-mail.
