Answer:
the post money valuation of the company is $1,750,000
Explanation:
The computation of the post money valuation is shown below:
Given that
Value of 400,000 shares is $1 million.
So,
The Value of 1 share is
= $1 million ÷ 400,000
= $2.5
And,
Total number of shares is
= 400,000 + 200,000 + 100,000
= 700,000
Now
Total value of shares is
= $2.5 × 700,000
= $1,750,000
hence, the post money valuation of the company is $1,750,000
Answer:
For how many days must the count have been overdue assuming the supplier uses a 365-day year? 50 days
Explanation:
ACCOUNT 512
% Interest 15%
Annual interest 76,8
76,8 365
10,52 x
X=50 days
Answer:
$40,500.
Explanation:
Calculation for Koch's adjusted basis in machine 2 after the exchange
Based on the information given we were told that Machine 1's had adjusted basis of the amount of $40,500 at the time of the exchange which means that Koch's adjusted basis in machine 2 after the exchange will the amount of $40,500 which is Machine 1's adjusted basis .
Therefore Koch's adjusted basis in machine 2 after the exchange will be $40,500
Answer
a. 200 million
b. 30 million
The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the image below.
Explanation
Please consider the data provided by the exercise. If you have any question please write me back. All the exercises are solved in a single sheet with the formulas indications.
Answer and explanation:
The following attached files
give a comprehensive breakdown of solutions
to the questions
