Hey!
Alright, the first step to solving this division problem would be to convert the mixed fraction into a simple fraction. To do that, we'll multiply the denominator by the whole number and then add that total to the numerator.
<em>Original Fraction :</em>

<em>New Fraction {Changed by Conversion} :</em>

Now that we've successfully done that we'll have to change the equation.
<em>Old Equation :</em>

÷

= ?
<em>New Equation {Changed by Flipping the Second Fraction and the Symbol} :</em>

·

= ?
Now we multiply straight across.
<em>Old Equation :</em>

·

= ?
<em>Solved :</em>

Almost done!
Now we have to simplify the fraction.
<em>Old Fraction :</em>

<em>New Fraction {Changed by Simplification} :</em>

Now just convert it to a whole number by removing the fraction line and the number, and that's it!
<span><em>So,

÷

equals</em></span>
15.
Hope this helps!
- Lindsey Frazier ♥
Answer:
a
Step-by-step explanation:
easy
The way I like to figure out problems like this is to write it out like,
1/10 = x/6000
(One over ten equals x over 6000)
Then you find out how much you multiplied 10 by to get 6000. To do this you can divide 6000 by 10 getting 600. The rule "what you do to the bottom you have to do to top" in this equation. So since you multiplied the bottom by 600 you have to multiply the top by 600 as well. 600 times 1 is just 600.
So your answer is, 600 is 1/10 of 6000.
Hope this helps and isn't too confusing.
We have that AB || DC.
By a similar argument used to prove that AEB ≅ CED,we can show that (AED) ≅ CEB by (SAS) . So, ∠CAD ≅ ∠ (ACB) by CPCTC. Therefore, AD || BC by the converse of the (
ALTERNATE INTERIOR ANGLES) theorem. Since both pair of opposite sides are parallel, quadrilateral ABCD is a parallelogram
1. AED
2. SAS
3. ACB
4. ALTERNATE INTERIOR ANGLES
Answer:
DWWDDWDWDAWDWDAWD
Step-by-step explanation:
WDWDAWDDAWD AWDDAWD