1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
rosijanka [135]
3 years ago
15

A pulley is used to lift a heavy mass from the floor to the platform. The IMA of the system is 5 and the AMA is 2.5. What is the

efficiency of the system?
Physics
2 answers:
Nuetrik [128]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

efficiency=\frac{AMA}{IMA}=\frac{2.5}{5}=0.5 or 50%

Explanation:

IMA means Ideal Mechanical Advantage, and it indicates the ratio between the input forces and the output forces without taking into consideration the force needed to overcome friction. In pulleys, this is calculated by counting the number of ropes on the system that in this case is 5

IMA = 5

IMA is greater to the AMA because it doesn't take into consideration friction.

AMA is the Actual Mechanical Advantage, and it is the measure of the usefulness of the pulley, and it indicate the ratio between the output force (Fo) and the input force (Fi). The smaller this ratio, the less useful is the pulley, meaning, it does not simplify the job it is designed to ease, for example, a pulley that does not reduce the force needed to lift a load.

AMA=2.5

So from these two definitions, if we have the actual force ratio and the ideal force ratio, we basically have the "what it is" and the "what could be", a very crude representation of efficiency:

efficiency=\frac{AMA}{IMA}=\frac{2.5}{5}=0.5 or 50%

NemiM [27]3 years ago
3 0
50% as it’s just Ama/ima simple
You might be interested in
Help and show work thanks
Zepler [3.9K]
Well its C, cant show you the work its in my head sorry.
6 0
3 years ago
Q. No. 9 A body falls freely from the top of a tower and during the last second of its fall, it falls through 25m. Find the heig
HACTEHA [7]

Answer:

45.6m

Explanation:

The equation for the position y of an object in free fall is:

y=-\frac{1}{2} gt^2+v_0t+y_0

With the given values in the question the equation has one unknown v₀:

v_0=\frac{y-y_0}{t}+\frac{1}{2}gt

Solving for t=1:

1) v_0=y-y_0+\frac{g}{2}

To find the hight of the tower you can use the concept of energy conservation:

The energy of the body 1 sec before it hits the ground:

2) E=\frac{1}{2}m{v_0}^2+mgy_0

If h is the height of the tower, the energy on top of the tower:

3) E=mgh

Combining equation 2 and 3 and solving for h:

4) h=\frac{{v_0}^2}{2g}+y_0

Combining equation 1 and 4:

h=\frac{{(y-y_0+\frac{g}{2}})^2}{2g}+y_0

4 0
3 years ago
. If you live in a region that has a particular TV station, you can sometimes pick up some of its audio portion on your FM radio
Reil [10]

Answer:

Please see below as the answer is self-explanatory.

Explanation:

The low band of the VHF TV Spectrum, spans channels 2-6, from 54 to 88 Mhz.

In the analog TV, in the Americas, the total bandwidth of any channel is 6 Mhz, with the visual carrier modulated in VSS (Vestigial Side Band) at 1.25 Mhz from the lowest frequency of the channel.

The aural carrier is located at 4.5 Mhz from the visual carrier, and is FM modulated.

For Channel 6, which spans between 82 and  88 Mhz, the visual carrier is at 83.25 Mhz, so the aural carrier is at 87.75 Mhz, which falls within the FM Band, so it is possible to listen the audio part of this channel in a FM radio receiver, even at a lower volume, due to the FM radio has a greater deviation than TV aural carrier.

6 0
3 years ago
The magnetic field strength at the north pole of a 2.0-cmcm-diameter, 8-cmcm-long Alnico magnet is 0.10 TT. To produce the same
horrorfan [7]

Answer:

2653 turns

Explanation:

We are given that

Diameter,d=2 cm

Length of magnet,l=8 cm=8\times 10^{-2} m

1m=100 cm

Magnetic field,B=0.1 T

Current,I=2.4 A

We are given that

Magnetic field of solenoid and magnetic are same and size of both solenoid and magnetic are also same.

Length of solenoid=8\times 10^{-2} m

Magnetic field of solenoid

B=\frac{\mu_0NI}{l}

Using the formula

0.1=\frac{4\pi\times 10^{-7}\times 2.4\times N}{8\times 10^{-2}}

Where \mu_0=4\pi\times 10^{-7}

N=\frac{0.1\times 8\times 10^{-2}}{4\pi\times 10^{-7}\times 2.4}=2653 turns

6 0
3 years ago
Which statement best describes the atoms of elements that form compounds by covalent bonding?
k0ka [10]

Answer:

they share electrons between them.

Explanation:

taking the test rn lol i think its right

4 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Suppose you wanted to "pull an Einstein," and create a static universe  in which the gravitational attraction of matter is exac
    6·2 answers
  • 1. The combination of all the forces on an object is called
    10·1 answer
  • A current of 1.8 A delivers 2.5 C of charge. How much time was required?
    15·2 answers
  • Do geochemists need to have a knowledge of physical science? Explain your<br> answer. please help:))
    7·1 answer
  • For a beam of light in air (n = 1) reflecting off glass (n = 1.5), what is Brewster's angle to the nearest degree?
    15·1 answer
  • An opera singer in a convertible sings a note at 600 Hz while cruising down the highway at 90 km/h. What is the frequency heard
    13·1 answer
  • A certain FM radio station broadcasts electromagnetic waves at a frequency of 60,500,000 Hz. These waves travel at a velocity of
    8·1 answer
  • How long does it take a 1.51 × 104 W steam engine to do 8.72 × 106 J of work? Round your answer to three significant figures
    6·1 answer
  • I need help on this and the first person who will answer this correctly gets BRANLIST​
    14·1 answer
  • Mercury is the closest planet to the sun, but its mean temperature is only 67°C. why is this?​
    9·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!