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Sonbull [250]
4 years ago
7

How do u calculate the bill total for the week by summing the daily bill amounts

Business
1 answer:
tino4ka555 [31]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Calculating the bill total for the week:

The Sum Function in excel is a very easy mathematical operation to sum the daily bill amounts.  In the cell for the sum, you can manually enter the sum function by typing (=sum), then you define the parameters (=sum(C50:I50).  One you press the "enter" the result is automatically displayed.  This can also be automatically done by pressing the Sum Function on the Ribbon or Alt + =.

Explanation:

In Microsoft Excel, the Sum Function is a mathematical operation or syntax that provides the formula for adding, subtracting, or getting the total numerical content of indicated cells. With the Sum Function of Excel you can add, subtract, multiply, and divide, for example A1 * A4, C20/A2, A4 - A5, and so on.

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Hank has a 32% marginal tax rate and has already recognized a STCL of $8,000 and a L TCG of $5,000, both due to the sale of stoc
Ivenika [448]

Answer:

The increase in his tax liability is $1,120

Explanation:

STCL due to sale of stock = $8,000

LTCG due to sale of stock = $5,000

∴Net STCL = $8,000 - $5,000

 Net STCL = $3,000

LTCG on sale of antique clock = $7,000

∴Net LTCG on sale of antique = $7,000 - $3,000 = $4,000

LTCG on sale of antiques is taxed at the rate of 28%

∴ Tax liability = $4,000 * 28%

  Tax liability = $4,000 * 0.28

  Tax liability = $1,120

6 0
3 years ago
А
kotegsom [21]

Answer:

2,000

Explanation:

On average, a person who have a full time job works will work approximately 2,000 hours each year reason been that we have 5 working days in a week and standard working hours in a weeks is 40 hours (5days×8hours daily) which means 8 hours daily , secondly we have 52 weeks in a year, now assuming that person takes 2 weeks off each year for his or her vacation we would have 50 weeks left (52 weeks-2 weeks vacation) which means that the person would be working 50 weeks of the year multiply by 40 hours a week which will give us a total of 2,000 hours each year.

40 work hours weekly× 50 weeks yearly

=2,000 hours of work each year

Therefore on average, a person with a full time job works approximately 2,000 hours each year.

7 0
4 years ago
Current operating income for Bay Area Cycles Co. is $34,000. Selling price per unit is $100, the contribution margin ratio is 25
leonid [27]

Answer:

break even point in unit =5440 units

break even point in sales = $544000

total sale = $680000

Explanation:

given data

Current operating income = $34,000

Selling price = $100

margin ratio = 25%

to find out

Bay Area Cycle’s break even point in units and total sales dollars

solution

we get here first break even point that is express as

break even point in unit =  \frac{fixed\ cost}{contribution\ per\ unit}   ..................1

break even point in unit =  \frac{136000}{100*0.25}

break even point in unit =5440 units

so

break even point in sales =  \frac{fixed\ cost}{margin\ ratio}   ..................2

break even point in sales = \frac{136000}{0.25}

break even point in sales = $544000

and

total sales will be

total sale =  \frac{operating\ income+ fixed\ expense}{margin\ ratio}   ..................3

total sale =  \frac{34000+136000}{0.25}

total sale = $680000

3 0
3 years ago
Which document should a job seeker send with a résumé to a potential employer?
anygoal [31]

Answer:

c). cover letter

Explanation:

A cover letter is a formal letter or document that a job seeker sends to a potential employer together with a resume. The letter details the positions that the vacant applicant seeks to fill. The cover letter or job application letter accords the applicant the opportunity to market themselves to the employer.

In the cover letter, a job seeker states why they are the best candidate for the position. Applicants use the cover letter to convince the employer to hire them.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On January 1, Year 1, the Hoverman Corporation made amendments to its defined benefit pension plan, resulting in $150,000 of pas
Lapatulllka [165]

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

a)

In IFRS according to IAS 19 all past service cost is recognized in the net income in the period in which amendment (change) is made by entity for defined benefit pension, it does not matter what is the status of the employees who will benefit the change. So in Year 1 $150000 will be expended completely and in subsequent years the amount is $0

Year 1 =$150000

Subsequent years= $0

b) In US GAAP the past service cost is recorded in Accumulated other comprehensive income in the year of amendment. It is amortized over the future working life of the participants.

Year 1 is year of adoption hence $0 is amortized because $150000 is included in Accumulated other comprehensive income.

Subsequent years: (150000/10=15000) $15000 will be amortized for each year for 10 years.

3 0
4 years ago
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