Overall asset turnover is computed as internet sales divided via common total assets.
Asset turnover is the ratio of overall sales or revenue to average property. This metric facilitates buyers to apprehend how efficaciously groups are using their assets to generate income. traders use the asset turnover ratio to examine similar corporations inside an equal area or organization.
A higher ratio is favorable because it suggests a more green use of belongings. Conversely, a decreased ratio suggests the organization isn't using its belongings as effectively. This is probably because of extra production capability, terrible series strategies, or bad stock control.
The asset turnover ratio is the ratio between the cost of a business enterprise's sales or revenues and the fee of its property. it's far an indicator of the efficiency with which an employer is deploying its assets to provide sales. as a consequence, the asset turnover ratio can be a determinant of an organization's performance.
Learn more about asset turnover here: brainly.com/question/15413308
#SPJ4
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
The responses to the given choices can be defined as follows:
Explanation:
Assume is the investment. Each original Class A investment is of the net-front unburden. The portfolio will be worth four years from now:  
 
  	
You will place the total of  on class B shares, but only
 on class B shares, but only  will be paid
will be paid  at a rate of
 at a rate of  and you'll pay a
 and you'll pay a  back-end load charge if you sell for a four-year period.
back-end load charge if you sell for a four-year period.
After 4 years, your portfolio worth would be:      
 
  	
Their portfolio worth would be: after charging the backend load fee:      

When the horizon is four years, class B shares are also the best option.
Class A shares would value from a 12-year time frame:

In this case, no back-end load is required for Class B securities as the horizon is larger than 5 years.
Its value of the class B shares, therefore, is as follows:

Class B shares aren't any longer a valid option in this, prolonged duration. Its impact on class B fees of  cumulates over a period and eventually outweighs the
cumulates over a period and eventually outweighs the  the burden of class A shareholders.
 the burden of class A shareholders.
 
        
             
        
        
        
There is no redemption period if the lender is not pursuing a deficiency judgment.
A judicial foreclosure permits the lender to get a deficiency judgment against the borrower. However, the homeowner has the “proper of redemption,” which lets him or her shop for the home returned from the hit bidder on the auction for 12 months after the sale.
In a judicial foreclosures state, the lender has to report a lawsuit in a courtroom in an effort to foreclose. In a nonjudicial foreclosure nation, the lender can foreclose without going through the court docket system. either way, the very last step within the foreclosure process is a foreclosure sale.
Redemption is a period after your home has already been sold at a foreclosure sale when you may nonetheless reclaim your private home. You may want to pay the high-quality mortgage stability and all fees incurred during the foreclosures system.
Learn more about foreclosures here brainly.com/question/15182362
#SPJ4
 
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
3 years after the right of return has expired
Explanation:
Generally accepted accounting principles (GAAPs) specify the scenario wherein revenue is to be recognized. 
As per the accrual principle, revenue is to be recognized when earned and not when actual cash is received against it. 
In the given case, the company allows it's customers to return the products sold within a period of three years. Hereby, the company must make a provision for contingency against future returns.
Here, the business should be able to estimate the number of vacuums that would be returned. Here, the company is unable to do so owing to no past record or history.
Hence, the company may have to wait till maximum period of 3 years i.e the time when products can no longer be returned, for recognizing revenue associated with the sales.   
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
The correct answer is option d.
Explanation:
Price discrimination is said to be existing if the same seller is selling same goods and services at different prices. 
For price discrimination the seller must be able to differentiate market on the basis of price elasticity of demand. Higher price is charged where demand is less elastic.
The seller must have some degree of monopoly power.
The seller must prevent reselling of goods between the two market segments. 
The different price elasticity for sellers and buyers is not a necessary condition.