Answer:
Consider f: N → N defined by f(0)=0 and f(n)=n-1 for all n>0.
Step-by-step explanation:
First we will prove that f is surjective. Let y∈N be any natural number. Define x as the number x=y+1. Then x∈N, and f(x)=x-1=(y+1)-1=y. We conclude that f is surjective.
However, f is not injective. Take x1=0 and x2=1. Then x1≠x2 but f(x1)=0 and f(x2)=x2-1=1-1=0. We have shown that there are two natural numbers x1,x2 such that x1≠x2 but f(x1)=f(x2), that is, f is not injective.
Note:
If 0∉N in your definition of natural numbers, the same reasoning works with the function f: N → N defined by f(1)=1 and f(n)=n-1 for all n>1. The only difference is that you consider x1=1, x2=2 for the injectivity.
3 4/10 is my answer
please can i have a brainliest
I believe the SSS theorem as they both share/have side measurements (and no defined angles)
Answer:
2 ^ 15
Step-by-step explanation:
2 ^9 * 2 ^ 2 * 2 ^ 4
When we multiply numbers with the same base, we can add the exponents
a^ b * a^ c = a^(b+c)
2 ^9 * 2 ^ 2 * 2 ^ 4
2 ^ ( 9+2+4)
2 ^ 15
Answer:
18π
Step-by-step explanation:
Lateral Surface Area = 2πrh
Plug in the numbers into the equation.
but leave the pi