Answer:
$100 favorable
Explanation:
The computation of the material purchase price variance is shown below:
= Actual Quantity purchased × (Standard Price - Actual Price)
= 2,000 pounds × ($1.60 - $1.55)
= 2,000 pounds × $0.05
= $100 favorable
Simply we took the difference between the standard and the actual price, and then multiply it by the actual quantity purchased
Answer: B. there is a conference for school principals coming to town. I hope this helps everyone :)
I took a test so i know this answer is correct! :)
Answer:
was it a passage u had to read?
Explanation:
Ideally;
Inventory = Cost of raw materials + Cost of finished goods + Cost of work-in-progress
Assuming this ideal case, Harlan's inventory would be;
Inventory = $14,000+$25,000+$18,600 = $57,600
However, if work-in-progress inventory was listed as $0;
Then, the new work-in-progress would be;
Inventory = 57,600-18,600 = $39,000
This would reduce the inventory for Harlan Enterprises which may affect other financial ratios such as inventory turn-over ratio. As a result, such ratios will not reflect the exact position of the company.
<span>If amortisation expenses are spread over 18 years rather than 6 years, amortisation expenses will be lower than they should be. This will cause an increase in net income. In addition, because less of the cost has been expensed, the remaining value of the patent will be too high, thus overstating assets.</span>
