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Andru [333]
3 years ago
10

For which function is f(x) equal to f^-1(x)?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Maru [420]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

It’s c f(x)=x+1/x-1

Step-by-step explanation:


Ilia_Sergeevich [38]3 years ago
4 0
We will find the inverse of the given functions:
 y = x + 2 / x-2
 (x-2) y = x + 2
 -2y + xy = x + 2
 -2y + xy = x + 2
 x (y - 1) = 2 + 2y
 x (y - 1) = 2 (y + 1)
 x = 2 (y + 1) / (y - 1)
 f (x) ^ - 1 = 2 (x + 1) / (x - 1)
 The inverse is different.
 f (x) = x + 1 / x-1
 
y = x + 1 / x-1
 (x-1) y = x + 1
 -y + xy = x + 1
 x (y - 1) = 1 + y
 x (y - 1) = (y + 1)
 x = (y + 1) / (y - 1)
 f (x) ^ - 1 = (x + 1) / (x - 1)
 The inverse is the same.
 Answer:
 
f (x) = x + 1 / x-1
 
f (x) ^ - 1 = (x + 1) / (x - 1)
 f (x) = f (x) ^ - 1
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Given that LM and LN are tangent to the circle and that the measure of angle MLN = 75.86, find the measure of arc MN.
siniylev [52]

we know that

The measure of the external angle is the semidifference of the arcs that it covers

so

∠MLN=(1/2)*(mayor arc MN-minor arc MN)

Let

x------> minor arc MN

major arc MN=360-x

substitute in the formula above

∠MLN=(1/2)*(mayor arc MN-minor arc MN)

75.86=(1/2)*(360-x-x)------> 151.72=(360-2x)------>360-151.72=2x

x=104.14°

therefore

the answer is

the measure of arc MN (minor arc) is 104.14°

7 0
3 years ago
(b) Ten men can assemble 400 cycles in 8 days. How many cycles 5 men will
Deffense [45]

Answer:

400

Step-by-step explanation

First, find how many cycles 5 man can make in 8 days.

400/2=200 (/ means divide)

Next, mutliply the answer to find out how many cycles 5 man can make in 16 days.

200x2=400

8 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP <br><br>What is the slope of this line? <br><br>a) -2 <br>b) -1/2<br>c) 1/2<br>d) 2 ​
anyanavicka [17]

Answer:

C: 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

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5 0
3 years ago
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Bartholemew will draw with replacement 160 tickets at random from a box with five tickets [0, 0, 0, 1, 2]. Estimate the chance t
cupoosta [38]

Answer:

0.0786

Step-by-step explanation:

It is given that Bartholemew had drawn the replacement of 160 tickets.

There are five tickets = [0, 0, 0, 1, 2]

Now we need to find the estimate of the ticket that has 1 on it and it turns up on the 32 draws exactly.

Since the probability of the drawing 1 out of 5 tickets is given by,   $\frac{1}{5} = 0.2$

So the binomial with the parameter of n = 160 and p = 0.2, we get

P (it turns up on exactly 32 draws) = P(X = 32)

Therefore,

$C(160, 32)\times (0.2)^{32}\times (0.8)^{160-32}$

= 0.0786

4 0
2 years ago
10x - 6 = 3(5 + x) true?
stepladder [879]

Answer:

True

Step-by-step explanation:

I think i am correct dear

8 0
2 years ago
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