Is this a question that needs answered or free points?
Answer:
d. {(1,2),(2,2),(3,2),(4,2),(5,2),(6,2)}
Step-by-step explanation:
First one can be any of the six outcomes
Answer:
The answer is below.
Step-by-step explanation:
Step-by-step explanation:
A left Riemann sum approximates a definite integral as:

Given ∫₂⁸ cos(x²) dx:
a = 2, b = 8, and f(x) = cos(x²)
Therefore, Δx = 6/n and x = 2 + (6/n) (k − 1).
Plugging into the sum:
∑₁ⁿ cos((2 + (6/n) (k − 1))²) (6/n)
Therefore, the answer is C. Notice that answer D would be a right Riemann sum rather than a left (uses k instead of k−1).
Answer:
A. see below for a graph
B. f(x, y) = f(0, 15) = 90 is the maximum point
Step-by-step explanation:
A. See below for a graph. The vertices are those defined by the second inequality, since it is completely enclosed by the first inequality: (0, 0), (0, 15), (10, 0)
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B. For f(x, y) = 4x +6y, we have ...
f(0, 0) = 0
f(0, 15) = 6·15 = 90 . . . . . the maximum point
f(10, 0) = 4·10 = 40
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<em>Comment on evaluating the objective function</em>
I find it convenient to draw the line f(x, y) = 0 on the graph and then visually choose the vertex point that will put that line as far as possible from the origin. Here, the objective function is less steep than the feasible region boundary, so vertices toward the top of the graph will maximize the objective function.