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Colt1911 [192]
3 years ago
14

Why are there limitations on the values of the base of an exponential function?

Mathematics
1 answer:
anygoal [31]3 years ago
7 0

Exponential functions look somewhat similar to functions you have seen before, in that they involve exponents, but there is a big difference, in that the variable is now the power, rather than the base. Previously, you have dealt with such functions as<span>f(x) = x2</span><span>, where the variable </span>x<span> was the base and the number </span>2<span> was the power. In the case of exponentials, however, you will be dealing with functions such as </span><span>g(x) = 2</span>x, where the base is the fixed number, and the power is the variable.

Let's look more closely at the function <span>g(x) = 2</span>x<span>. To evaluate this function, we operate as usual, picking values of </span>x<span>, plugging them in, and simplifying for the answers. But to evaluate </span>2x<span>, we need to remember how exponents work. In particular, we need to remember that </span>negative exponents<span> mean "put the base on the other side of the fraction line.   </span>

<span>
</span>

<span>hope this help plz mark brainliest</span>

<span>
</span>

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i think the second option

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
Linear Algebra question! Please help!
kozerog [31]

Answers:

  1. false
  2. false
  3. true
  4. false
  5. True

==================================================

Explanation:

Problem 1

This is false because the A and B should swap places. It should be (AB)^{-1} = B^{-1}A^{-1}.

The short proof is to multiply AB with its inverse (AB)^{-1}  and we get: (AB)*(AB)^{-1} = (AB)*(B^{-1}A^{-1}) = A(B*B^{-1})*A^{-1} = A*A^{-1} = I

The fact we get the identity matrix proves that we have the proper order at this point. The swap happens so that B matches up its corresponding inverse B^{-1} and the two cancel each other out.

Keep in mind matrix multiplication is <u>not</u> commutative. So AB is not the same as BA.

-------------------------

Problem 2

This statement is true if and only if AB = BA

(A+B)^2 = (A+B)(A+B)

(A+B)^2 = A(A+B) + B(A+B)

(A+B)^2 = A^2 + AB + BA + B^2

(A+B)^2 = A^2 + 2AB + B^2 ... only works if AB = BA

However, in most general settings, matrix multiplication is <u>not</u> commutative. The order is important when multiplying most two matrices. Only for special circumstances is when AB = BA going to happen. In general,  AB = BA is false which is why statement two breaks down and is false in general.

-------------------------

Problem 3

This statement is true.

If A and B are invertible, then so is AB.

This is because both A^{-1} and B^{-1} are known to exist (otherwise A and B wouldn't be invertible) and we can use the rule mentioned in problem 1. Make sure to swap the terms of course.

Or you can use a determinant argument to prove the claim

det(A*B) = det(A)*det(B)

Since A and B are invertible, their determinants det(A) and det(B) are nonzero which makes the right hand side nonzero. Therefore det(A*B) is nonzero and AB has an inverse.

So if we have two invertible matrices, then their product is also invertible. This idea can be scaled up to include things like A^4*B^3 being also invertible.

If you wanted, you can carefully go through it like this:

  1. If A and B are invertible, then so is AB
  2. If A and AB are invertible, then so is A*AB = A^2B
  3. If A and A^2B are invertible, then so is A*A^2B = A^3B

and so on until you build up to A^4*B^3. Therefore, we can conclude that A^m*B^n is also invertible. Be careful about the order of multiplying the matrices. Something like A*AB is different from AB*A, the first of which is useful while the second is not.

So this is why statement 3 is true.

-------------------------

Problem 4

This is false. Possibly a quick counter-example is to consider these two matrices

A = \begin{bmatrix}1 & 0\\0 & 1\end{bmatrix} \text{ and } B = \begin{bmatrix}-1 & 0\\0 & -1\end{bmatrix}

both of which are invertible since their determinant is nonzero (recall the determinant of a diagonal matrix is simply the product along the diagonal entries). So it's not too hard to show that the determinant of each is 1, and each matrix shown is invertible.

However, adding those two mentioned matrices gets us the 2x2 zero matrix, which is a matrix of nothing but zeros. Clearly the zero matrix has determinant zero and is therefore not invertible.

There are some cases when A+B may be invertible, but it's not true in general.

-------------------------

Problem 5

This is true because each A pairs up with an A^{-1} to cancel out (similar what happened with problem 1). For more info, check out the concept of diagonalization.

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svetlana [45]

Answer:

90

Step-by-step explanation:

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sattari [20]

24 degrees Fahrenheit


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A baseball player gets 16 hits in 40 at bats. What percent of his at bats did not result
Katarina [22]

Answer:

40 percent

Step-by-step explanation:

Now percentage formula

Whatever

- - - - - - - - - - x 100

Total whatever

In this case your whatever is the hits. according to the question, if i said he had 40 hits in 40, that's a 100percent. So... Your whatever is 16, total whatever is 40

16

- - - - - - x 100

40

= 40 percent

6 0
3 years ago
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