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Elena L [17]
3 years ago
5

"Dubas Co. is a U.S.-based MNC that has a subsidiary in Germany and another subsidiary in Austria. Both subsidiaries frequently

remit their earnings back to the parent company. The German subsidiary generated a net outflow of €2,000,000 this year, while the Austrian subsidiary generated a net inflow of €1,500,000. What is the net inflow or outflow as measured in U.S. dollars this year? The exchange rate for the euro is $1.05"
Business
1 answer:
OverLord2011 [107]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$525,000

Explanation:

The computation of the net inflow or outflow is shown below:

= Total outflow - total inflow

where,

Total outflow = ∈2,000,000 × $1.05 = $2,100,000

Total inflow =  ∈1,500,000 × $1.05 = $1,575,000

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= $2,100,000 - $1,575,000

= $525,000

This amount shows a net outflow as total outflow is greater than the total inflow.

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Create a PPC for a country that produces 50 million guns and 200 tons of butter and label the following
Neporo4naja [7]

The production possibility curve shows the different combination for output that can be produced from the resources and technology.

<h3>What is a PPC?</h3>

It should be noted that a PPC is simply a graph that's used to show the different combination for output that can be produced from the resources and technology.

In this case, the points show how much of the goods van be produced. Point E means underutilization.

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8 0
2 years ago
EB3.
kondaur [170]

Answer:

Their net operating income for the year was $39,628

Explanation:

Flip or Flop's net operating income for the year = Gross revenue - Cost of Goods Sold - Operating expenses

Their Cost of Goods Sold (COGS) was 21% of gross revenue, therefore:

Cost of Goods Sold = 21% x $93,200 = $19,572

The company has operating expenses for this same period of $34,000.

Net operating income for the year = $93,200 - $19,572 - $34,000 = $39,628

7 0
3 years ago
Refer to the accompanying consumption schedule in an economy. All figures are in billions of dollars. If gross investment is $34
dezoksy [38]

Answer:

C+$64

Explanation:

The GDP measures the market value of all good and services produced in an economy (country or region) in a specific period of time. It is calculated by this formula:

GDP= Consumption (C)+ Investment (I)+ Government expenditure ()+ Net exports (exports-imports)

A lump-sum tax at all levels of GDP means that no matter what GDP value is, the tax will be the same amount. If the tax is collected by the government then the GDP will increase because the government expenditure is income ( most of them are taxes) minus expenses ( public investment in education, health, etc)

GDP= C+$34+$30+0

After tax, the equilibrium level of GDP will be C+$64

8 0
2 years ago
national savings is equal to the sum of private savings and public savings. to make our notation a bit easier, we will call nati
slamgirl [31]

Here, public savings = $1.05 billion and private savings = $3.15 billion

It is calculated as follows:

Total savings, S = $4.20 billion

We know: S = V+U

It means National Savings = Private savings + Public savings

Here:

V = private savings , U = public savings and

Private saving, V = 0.75 × S

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 = $3.15 billion

And, the public savings will be = National savings - private savings

= $4.20 billion - $3.15 billion

= $1.05 billion

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3 0
1 year ago
Which is the best measure of risk for a single asset held in isolation (Stand Alone Investment), and which is the best measure f
borishaifa [10]

Answer:

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Explanation:

When dealing with standalone risk, coefficient of variation is best because it shows the amount by which the asset's returns might deviate from the average returns of the market.

As for portfolio assets that are well diversified, the best measure would be beta because diversified portfolios deal with systematic risk and beta shows the movement of the portfolio in relation to the market and so will show that systematic risk.

4 0
3 years ago
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