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Romashka [77]
3 years ago
10

Identify whether each of the following would be reported as an operating, investing, or financing activity on the statement of c

ash flows:
1.
A. Repurchase of common stock
B. Cash received from customers
C. Payment of accounts payable
D. Retirement of bonds payable
E. Purchase of equipment
F. Purchase of inventory for cash
2.
A. Purchase of investments
B. Disposal of equipment
C. Payment for selling expenses
D. Collection of accounts receivable
E. Cash sales
F. Issuance of bonds payable
Business
1 answer:
anyanavicka [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer and Explanation:

The classification is as follows

1.

A. financing activity = Cash outflow  as cash is gone

B. Operating activity  = Cash inflow as cash is received

C.  Operating activity  = Cash outflow  as cash is gone

D. Financing activity  = Cash outflow  as cash is gone

E. Investing activity  = Cash outflow  as cash is gone

2.

A. Investing activity  = Cash outflow  as cash is gone

B, Investing activity  = Cash inflow as cash is received

C.  Operating activity  = Cash outflow  as cash is gone

D.  Operating activity  = Cash inflow as cash is received

E.  Operating activity  = Cash inflow as cash is received

F.financing activity  = Cash inflow as cash is received

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Ai​ Lun, a management trainee at a large New Yorkdashbased ​bank, is trying to estimate the real rate of return expected by inve
QveST [7]

Answer:

Ai​ Lun estimate that  real rate would be 1%

Explanation:

The Formula for the Real Rate of Return is

Real rate of return =Nominal interest rate - Inflation rate

In this case ,

Nominal interest rate =3%

Inflation rate  is given by the rising of the consumer prices =2%

So,  

Real rate of return =3% - 2%

Real rate of return=1%

5 0
3 years ago
The classification and normal balance of the drawing account are a.expense, debit balance b.expense, credit balance c.liability,
Elis [28]

Answer:

The answer is D. owner's equity, debit balance

Explanation:

Drawing is the money or goods taken out from business by its owner. This act is usually common in partnership or sole proprietorship.

A drawing is not an expense, rather it is a reduction in owner's equity.

To credit owner's equity means to increase its equity and to debit owner's equity means to decrease or reduce its equity.

Since, drawing is a reduction in owner's equity, we debit owner's equity making option D. the correct answer.

Option A and B are wrong because drawings are not classified as an expense.

Option C is also wrong because a drawing is never a liability.

7 0
3 years ago
A $104,000 selling price with $24,000 down at 8.5% for 25 years results in a monthly payment of?
jekas [21]
119 payments of 330.38 
5 0
3 years ago
​Sara's Jewelry sold 20 necklaces for $ 35 each to a credit customer. The invoice included a 5​% sales tax and payment terms of
jeka94

Answer:

The journal entry for recording the original sale is shown below:

Explanation:

The journal entry for recording the original sale is as follows:

Accounts receivable A/c................................Dr $735

         Sales Tax A/c...................................................Cr $35

          Sales A/c............................................................Cr $700

As sales is made on credit so the accounts receivable account will be debited against the Sales account, which is credited. And there is sales tax charged on selling necklaces, which is credited to the sales tax account.

Computation of Sales Tax as:

Sales tax = Selling amount × Tax

where

Selling amount = Number of Necklaces × Price

= 20 × $35

= $700

So,

Sales tax = $700 × 5%

Sales tax = $35

8 0
2 years ago
Stocks X and Y have the following data. The market risk premium is 5.0% and the risk-free rate is 4.6%. Assuming the stock marke
Nat2105 [25]

Answer:

b. Stock X has the higher dividend yield.

Explanation:

We solve for the cost of equity of each stock using CAMP then, with the gordon model we determinate the price ofthe share expressed in Dividends.

<em><u>Stock X</u></em>

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)

risk free = 0.046

market rate = 0.09

premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.05

beta(non diversifiable risk) = 1.5

Ke= 0.046 + 1.5 (0.05)

<em>Ke 0.12100</em>

<u><em>Dividend grow model:</em></u>

D/(r-g) = Value of the share

0.121 - 0.06 = 0.061

D/0.061 =<em> 16.39D</em>

<em><u>Stock Y</u></em>

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)

risk free = 0.046

market rate = 0.09

premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.05

beta(non diversifiable risk) = 0.5

Ke= 0.046 + 0.5 (0.05)

<em>Ke 0.07100</em>

<em><u>Dividend grow model:</u></em>

D/(r-g) = Value of the share

0.071 - 0.06 = 0.011

D / 0.011 = <em>90.90D</em>

The stock X is value 16.39 times his dividends

while stock Y is valued 90.90 times his dividends

Thus, being Dividend Yield the Dividend per share over the price of the share it will be higher on stock X than stock Y

7 0
3 years ago
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