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Vedmedyk [2.9K]
3 years ago
15

Plssssss help me with this math pls

Mathematics
1 answer:
sdas [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct answer is A) 4/663.

Step-by-step explanation:

First you find the probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards. Since there are 4 queens(the queen of diamond, the queen of hearts, the queen of spades, and the queen of clubs) in a deck of 52 cards, the  probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards is 4/52.

Next you find the probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards(since you did not replace the first card you drew). Since there are 4 kings(the king of diamond, the king of hearts, the king of spades, and the king  of clubs) in a deck of cards, the  probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards is 4/51.

Then you multiply the two probabilities to determine the probability of drawing a queen then a king. So,

4/52 x 4/51 =

4 x 4/52 x 51 =

16/2652

Finally, simplify the fraction. The greatest number that can go into both the numerator and denominator is 4. So divide both the numerator and denominator by 4. When you do this, you get the following:

16 divided by 4 = 4 as the numerator and

2652 divided by 4 = 663 as denominator.

So, the final answer is 4/663.

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The volume of a sphere is 4/3pi cm^3<br> what is the diameter of the sphere?
aleksandrvk [35]

The Diameter of sphere is 2cm.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

Volume of sphere = \frac{4}{3}\pi \ cm^3

Let,

diameter = d

As we know,

Volume of sphere = \frac{4}{3}\pi \ r^3

Therefore,

\frac{4}{3}\pi\ r^3 = \frac{4}{3}\pi \\Multiplying\ both\ sides\ by\ \frac{3}{4\pi }\\\frac{3}{4\pi }*\frac{4}{3}\pi \ r^3 = \frac{4}{3}\pi * \frac{3}{4\pi }\\r^3=1\\(r)^3=(1)^3\\r=1

We know that,

Diameter = 2r

Diameter = 2*1

Diameter = 2 cm

The Diameter of sphere is 2cm.

Keywords: Volume, Diameter

Learn more about diameters at:

  • brainly.com/question/12973601
  • brainly.com/question/13063819

#LearnwithBrainly

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3 years ago
Given: ​△ACE, BD​∥AE<br><br> Prove: BA/CB=DE/CD<br><br> Drag
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]

Answer:


Step-by-step explanation:

Angle 4 = angle 1 and angle 3 =angle 2        Corresponding angles for two        parallel lines BD and AE

Triangle AED ||| BDE                                       Angle angle congruent

...                                                                       By compendo and dividendo

Thus proved

Since two lines are parallel we have corresponding angles equal and also

sides will be proportional in similar triangles

Using that and adjusting compendo and dividendo we get the desired result

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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