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Mashcka [7]
3 years ago
7

The manager of your company's pension fund is compensated based entirely on fund performance; he earned over $1.2 million last y

ear. As a result, the fund is contemplating a proposal to cap the compensation of fund managers at $100,000. Provide an argument against the proposal.
Business
1 answer:
Anon25 [30]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The compensation to the fund manager is based on the performance of the pension fund. If the fund performs well and earns significant profit, then the compensation to the mangers should increase.  

If it incurs losses, then the argument for capping the compensation of funds managers will gain ground. Note that the manager is being paid according to the pay-for-performance scheme. Thus it is unjustified that his compensation is reduced when there is no significant evidence that his performance was responsible for the poor performance of the fund. The manager has earned over $1.2 million last year. Hence fixing the compensation of managers to $100,000 should be considered only when the fund has under performed drastically. Without such evidence, such capping will only demoralize them and the profitability of the company will fall.

Explanation:

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Bright Slope Corp. has provided the following information:Balance SheetCash $ 10,000 Accounts Payable $ 5,000Marketable Securiti
Julli [10]

Answer:

Answer : Retained earning = 61400

Explanation:

Sales next year (100000+20000) = 120000  

Increase in sales = 120000-100000/100000= 20%

Current profit margin = 7500/100000= 7.5%

Dividend Payout ratio = Dividend / net jncome = 3000/7500 = 40%

New profit margin = 120000 x 7.5% =9000

New Dividend = 9000 x40% = 3600

Performance Balance sheet

Cash 10000(1+0.2)                                         12000

Marketible securities (no change)                5000

Account Receivable 25000(1+0.02)                30000

Inventory 35000(1+0.02)                                42000

Total Current Asset                                        89000

Net Fixed Asset (80000+12000)                         92000

Total Asset                                                        181000

Accounts payable 5000(1+.02)                         6000

Accruals 2000(1+.02)                                         2400

Notes Payable 8% (no change as rolled over) 12000

Total Current Liabilities                                         20400

Long Term Debt 10%                                         48000

Common stock                                                 32000

Retained Earning                                                 61400

Balancing figure (additional funding)                 19200

                                                                               181000

Retained earning = Old balance + (Current year net income - dividend paid)  

                                56000+ ( 9000-3600) =61400

2) changes in working capital.

Working capital means Current asset - current liabilities  

Earlier it was 75000 - 19000 = 56000

Now its 89000 - 20400 = 68600

Working capital has been increased by 68600 - 56000 =12600

(working capital is the amount needed to run business day to day activities.)

Although sales increased by 20% but working capital doesn't increase by 20% because payable were rolled over. So its bad management as company management is expanding its businesses not from current business retained earning but by deferring payables

8 0
3 years ago
Approximately what percentage of total health care spending goes toward hospital care?
masha68 [24]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

According to an article published on modernhealthcare.com on Feb-2019, around 33% of total health care spending goes to hospital care. 33% calculates as to one-third of total health care spending portion.

8 0
3 years ago
Wants to start a fashion boutique that will sell tailor-made garments and accessories. She plans to open boutique stores in life
Akimi4 [234]

Answer:

commercial bank people will help her in that regard

5 0
3 years ago
ABC stock has just closed at $70.50. A customer has an open order on the Specialist's book (DMM's book) to sell short 100 shares
Rudiy27

Answer:

A) Sell short 100 ABC at 69.45 Stop

Explanation:

When an order is placed below the market (OBLOSS - Open Buy Limits Open Sell Stops) it will be adjusted on the specialist's book for distributions on ex date. This open sell stop order = $70 - $0.55 (dividend) = $69.45

So the adjusted order will be: Sell short 100 ABC at 69.45 stop.

7 0
3 years ago
Smiley Industrial Goods has $1,000 face value bonds on the market with semiannual interest payments, 13.5 years to maturity, and
Snezhnost [94]

Answer:

Annual Coupon rate =  66.56990711 / 1000 = 0.06656990711 or 6.656990711% rounded off to 6.66%

Option B is the correct answer

Explanation:

To calculate the price of the bond today, we will use the formula for the price of the bond. We assume that the interest rate provided is stated in annual terms. As the bond is a semi annual bond, the coupon payment, number of periods and semi annual YTM will be,

Coupon Payment (C) = C

Total periods (n) = 13.5 * 2 = 27

r or YTM = 0.064 * 6/12 = 0.032 or 3.2%

The formula to calculate the price of the bonds today is attached.

We will first calculate the value of semi coupon payment  made by the bond.

1023 = C * [( 1 - (1+0.032)^-27) / 0.032]  + 1000 / (1+0.032)^27

1023 = C * 17.8994796  +  427.2166529

1023 -  427.2166529  =  C * 17.8994796

595.7833471 / 17.8994796  =  C

C = 33.28495355 rounded off to 33.28

The annual coupon payment will be = 33.28495355 * 2 = 66.56990711 rounded off to 66.57

Annual Coupon rate =  66.56990711 / 1000 = 0.06656990711 or 6.656990711% rounded off to 6.66%

4 0
2 years ago
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