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noname [10]
3 years ago
5

If actual manufacturing overhead costs are less than the applied manufacturing overhead, then manufacturing overhead is:

Business
1 answer:
Genrish500 [490]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Under applied

Explanation:

Actual manufacturing overhead costs are those amounts of overhead costs that are incurred by a firm during production processes.

Applied manufacturing overhead costs are those costs that are added to jobs as they near completion. Usually, as work or job nears completion during the year, the predetermined overhead rate and actual activity level are used to apportion them.

In general, manufacturing overhead costs are those costs that are not direct labor costs or direct material costs; which is made of expenses like equipment and lightening. It could either be under or over applied. It is under applied as in the above while it is over applied when the actual manufacturing overhead costs are more than the applied manufacturing overhead costs.

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Which type of cover letter would the above excerpt come from? a. Prospecting cover letter b. Networking cover letter c. Applicat
Sergeu [11.5K]

I believe the answer is:  B. Networking cover letter

Networking cover letter is sent in order to obtain help from other people in similar industry as you to introduce you to potential employers. Such letters tend to massively increase the likelihood of you obtaining the job since in the employer's perspective, you are a person that his/her friends had trusted and vouch for.

5 0
3 years ago
Acceleron is planning future expansion with a new facility in Indianapolis. The company will make the move when its real estate
alukav5142 [94]

Answer:

6.67   years

Explanation:

The number of years for the firm to reach the desired value of $1.2 million can determined using the  nper formula in excel as below:

=nper(rate,pmt,pv,-fv)

rate  is the interest rate earns by the fund at 10% per year

pmt is the addition to the fund in each year which is $50,000

pv is the current amount in the fund which is $400,000

fv is the desired value of $1.2 million

=nper(10%,50000,400000,-1200000)=  6.67  years

It would take  6.67   years for the sinking fund to reach the desired value of $1,200,000

7 0
3 years ago
Due to ____, market forces should realign the cross exchange rate between two foreign currencies based on the spot exchange rate
aksik [14]

Answer:

Triangular Arbitrage

Explanation:

Arbitrage is the financial practice in which the prices of two or more different markets are taken advantage of to make profit as a result of tthe imbalance in the prices of the markets.

Also known as 3 point or cross currency arbitrage, Triangular arbitrage is the taking advantage/ exploiting of the pricing differences between 3 currencies on the foreign exchange market.

Simply put, triangular arbitrage is a situation in which the exchange rates between 3 currencies are not the same.

Triangular arbitrage is difficult to come by as it requires very advanced computer systems to detect and take advantage of.

I hope this helps.

6 0
3 years ago
A tragic flaw in a character is cause by
suter [353]
Tragic flaw is a literary device that can be defined as a trait in a character leading to his downfall, and the character is often the hero of the literary piece. This trait could be the lack of self-knowledge, lack of judgment, and often it is hubris (pride).
3 0
3 years ago
An income statement for Sam's Bookstore for the first quarter of the year is presented below: Sam's Bookstore Income Statement F
yawa3891 [41]

Answer:

The contribution margin for Sam's Bookstore for the first quarter is 0.84 or 84 %

Explanation:

Contribution Margin = Contribution ÷ Sales

Where,

<em>Contribution = Sales - Variable Costs</em>

where,

Sales :

Sales = $ 900,000

Number of Books Sold = $ 900,000 ÷ $50

                                      = 18,000 books

Variable Costs Calculation :

Cost of goods sold                                                           $630,000

Variable selling expenses ($5 × 18,000 books)               $90,000

Variable administrative expenses( 4% × $ 900,000)       $36,000

Total Variable Costs                                                         $756,000

Therefore,

Contribution Margin =  $756,000÷  $ 900,000

                                  = 0.84 or 84 %

7 0
3 years ago
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