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noname [10]
3 years ago
5

If actual manufacturing overhead costs are less than the applied manufacturing overhead, then manufacturing overhead is:

Business
1 answer:
Genrish500 [490]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Under applied

Explanation:

Actual manufacturing overhead costs are those amounts of overhead costs that are incurred by a firm during production processes.

Applied manufacturing overhead costs are those costs that are added to jobs as they near completion. Usually, as work or job nears completion during the year, the predetermined overhead rate and actual activity level are used to apportion them.

In general, manufacturing overhead costs are those costs that are not direct labor costs or direct material costs; which is made of expenses like equipment and lightening. It could either be under or over applied. It is under applied as in the above while it is over applied when the actual manufacturing overhead costs are more than the applied manufacturing overhead costs.

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4 0
3 years ago
Ivan's, Inc., paid $482 in dividends and $586 in interest this past year. Common stock increased by $196 and retained earnings d
Svet_ta [14]

Answer:

$360

Explanation:

We can compute net income to be

The ending balance of retained earnings = Beginning balance of retained earnings + net income - dividend paid.

Where,

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6 0
4 years ago
Question 6. (10 marks)
natka813 [3]

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8 0
3 years ago
when preparing a trial balance, there are certain steps that need to be followed. place the following steps in the correct order
hjlf

Answer:i don’t know why this is right, but i’m here to help and have to have a 20 word count minimum to submit

Explanation:

3 0
1 year ago
A firm currently has a debt-equity ratio of 1/2. The debt, which is virtually riskless, pays an interest rate of 6%. The expecte
Svetradugi [14.3K]

Answer:

Expected return on equity is 11.33%

Explanation:

Using Weighted Average Cost Capital without tax formula, overall rate of return is given by the formula:

WACC=(Ke*E/V)+(Kd*D/V)

Kd is the cost of debt at 6%

Ke is the cost of equity at 12%

D/E=1/2 which means debt is 1 and equity is 2

D/V=debt/debt+equity=1/1+2=1/3

E/V=equity/debt+equity=2/1+2=2/3

WACC=(12%*2/3)+(6%*1/3)

WACC=10%

If the firm reduces debt-equity ratio to 1/3,1 is for debt 3 is for equity

D/V=debt/debt+equity=1/1+3=1/4

E/V=equity/debt+equity=3/1+3=3/4

WACC=10%

10%=(Ke*3/4)+(6%*1/4)

10%=(Ke*3/4)+1.5%

10%-1.5%=Ke*3/4

8.5%=Ke*3/4

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34%=3 Ke

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Ke=11.33%

4 0
3 years ago
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