Answer:
(b) 1440
Explanation:
As the coupon rate of 8% is greater than the yield to maturity (YTM) of 6% annually, the bond is selling at a premium. Hence, the bond will be called at the earliest i.e. 15 years.
Coupon = Call Price * Semi-annual coupon rate = X * [0.08 / 2] = X * 0.04
Yield to call = 6% annually = 3% semi-annually
Time = 15 years * 2 = 30
We know that,
Current Price of bond = Coupon * [1 - (1 + YTC)-call date] / YTC + Call Price / (1 + YTC)call date
- 1,722.25 = [X * 0.04] * [1 - (1 + 0.03)-30] / 0.03 + [X / (1 + 0.03)30]
- 1,722.25 = [X * 0.04] * 19.60 + [X * 0.41]
- 1,722.25 = X * [(0.04 * 19.60) + 0.41]
- X = 1,722.25 / 1.194
-
X=$ 1,442.42 \approx $ 1,440
Answer:
Given that,
Total prepaid insurance = $6,700
Monthly insurance:
= Total prepaid insurance ÷ 4 months
= $6,700 ÷ 4 months
= $1,675
Insurance expense for two months:
= $6,700 - $1,675
= $5,025
Therefore, the adjusting entry required on December 31 is as follows:
Insurance expense A/c Dr. $5,025
To Prepaid insurance $5,025
(To record the adjusting entry for the insurance)
Answer:
The alignment of numbers in the first part of the question is off. However, you solve this question as shown below. The correct answer is C. $1,124.
Explanation:
This is a one-time cashflow type of question where the principal amount is invested once and no other addition is made to the account. You use the future value formula to solve the result of the compounding effect at year 3.
FV formula;
FV = PV(1+r)^n
PV = 800
discount rate; r = 12% or 0.12
total duration of investment; n = 3
therefore; FV = 800(1+0.12)^3
FV = 800 * 1.404928
FV = 1123.94
To the nearest whole dollar, the amount will grow to $1,124
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Answer:
15250
Explanation:
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