A military officer training program
Answer:
2 Days
Explanation:
First, there is the need to rewrite the utility function for clarity
U=V^{1/2}
1. The Probability of Falling ill by someone in the family is given as 20%
2. If someone should fall ill, the total number of days that would be spoiled is calculated as:
Total number of vacation= 10 days x Probability to fall ill = 20%
= 10 x 0.2 = 2 days
This means if someone should fall ill based on the probability, then 2 out of the total 10 days can be ruined
3. The number of days for vacation days to enjoy is 10-2 = 8 days
This means if the family gives up 2 days of probable illness, they can still enjoy their vacation.
V= 2 days
Answer:
The answers are:
- D) Supply and the entire curve shifts.
- D) Quantity supplied and the supply curve does not shift.
Explanation:
1. When non price factors (that affect the supply of a product) change, then the whole supply curve shifts and the quantity supplied will vary.
For example, new machinery that produces goods in a more efficient way, will shift the entire supply curve to the right. Suppliers will be able to produce more goods at the same costs.
2. A change in the amount of goods produced due to a change in price, is a change in the quantity supplied of that product. Suppliers will produce more goods at higher prices. But those changes in the quantity supplied happen follow the supply curve.
Answer:
INCREASE IN AVERAGE INVENTORY VALUE REQUIRED = $2.25 million
Explanation:
Inventory turnover will be determined as :
Inventory turnover = Annual sales ( at cost ) / Inventory value
Annual sales this year = $72million
Inventory turnover = 8 times
Therefore , Inventory value of current year = $72/8 =$ 9 MILLION
If annual sales ( at cost ) increases by 25%, Inventory value also has to increase by 25% to maintain the same inventory turnover ratio next year
Therefore , increase in average inventory value required = 25% of $9 million = $2.25 million
INCREASE IN AVERAGE INVENTORY VALUE REQUIRED = $2.25 million
Answer:
The responses to the given choices can be defined as follows:
Explanation:
Assume is the investment. Each original Class A investment is of the net-front unburden. The portfolio will be worth four years from now:
You will place the total of 
on class B shares, but only 
will be paid 
at a rate of 
and you'll pay a 
back-end load charge if you sell for a four-year period.
After 4 years, your portfolio worth would be:
Their portfolio worth would be: after charging the backend load fee:
When the horizon is four years, class B shares are also the best option.
Class A shares would value from a 12-year time frame:
In this case, no back-end load is required for Class B securities as the horizon is larger than 5 years.
Its value of the class B shares, therefore, is as follows:
Class B shares aren't any longer a valid option in this, prolonged duration. Its impact on class B fees of 
cumulates over a period and eventually outweighs the 
the burden of class A shareholders.
