The answer relies on whether the balls are different or not.
If they are not, which is almost certainly what is intended.
If they are, the perceptive is a bit different. Your
expression gives the likelihood that a particular set of j balls
goes into the last urn and the other n−j balls into the other urns.
But there are (nj) different possible sets of j balls, and each of
them the same probability of being the last insides of the last urn, so the
total probability of completing up with exactly j balls in the last
urn is if the balls are different.
See attached file for the answer.
The answer is C: 4.4
It might be A at the same time tho LMOO
Answer:
4⁰ is the answer
Step-by-step explanation:
because first you change the division sign to a multiplication sign because they are the same and then multiply the terms with same base by adding their exponent which looks like this 4⁵-⁷+²
then calculate the sum or difference and you get 4⁰ [hopefully this makes sense]
Its a rectangle so two sides are equal and both sides that are opposite of each other are equal. So two sides are 37. Then you add them together to get 74, then subtract it from 164 to get 90 the rest of the fence length. Then divide it by two to get 45 which is the other side lengths, so it would be a 37 by 45 rectangle one side would be 37 while the other two are 45.
(Credit to guy/girl above) 63 miles 10 1/2 x 6 is 63.
