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salantis [7]
3 years ago
5

Simplify 5 to the negative 4th power over 5 to the 3rd. 57 5−1 1 over 5 1 over 5 to the 7th power

Mathematics
2 answers:
aivan3 [116]3 years ago
6 0
5^-4 / 5^3
= 5^-1
= 1/5

answer
<span>5^−1
</span><span>1 over 5</span>
Anika [276]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The value of the provided expression is 5^{-7} or \frac{1}{5^7}.

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider the provided information.

We need to find the simplify form of the expression:

\frac{5^{-4}}{5^3}

Use the quotient rule of exponent:

\frac{a^m}{a^n}=a^{m-n}

Now use the above rule of exponent.

\frac{5^{-4}}{5^3}

5^{-4-3}

5^{-7} or \frac{1}{5^7}

Hence, the value of the provided expression is 5^{-7} or \frac{1}{5^7}.

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Solve for x.<br> 8= 2x + 4
andriy [413]

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

2x + 4 = 8

subtract 4 from both sides

2x = 4

divide by 2

x = 2

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A box contains 1.0 red chips, 20.bluechips, and 30 green chips. ll5 chrps are orawn lrom the box, find the probability of drawin
alexira [117]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let S be the sample space of an experiment and E is an event associated with the experiment.

Let n(S) and n(E) denote the number of element in S and E.

P(E) is the probability of an event E

The number of elements on the sample space ;

n(S) = n(r) + n(b) + n(g) = 10 + 20 + 30 = 60

Hence, the event of drawing 5chips from the box n(S) = C(60,5)

A) probability of drawing 5chips from the box which are all blue ;

P(E) = n(E) / n(S) = 20C5 x 40C0 / 60C5 = 0.0028

by combination method ; nCr = n!/r!(n - r)!

B) the probability of drawing the indicated chips at least 1 green ;

Application of the binomial formula comes in ; nCr x p^r x q^n-r

= P(E) = 1 - p(x <1) = 1 - po = 1 - 30C0 x 30C5 / 60C5

= 0.9739

C)  the probability of drawing the indicated chips at most 1 red;

P(E) = p(no red) + p(one red)

= 10C0 x 50C5 + 10C1 x 50C4 / 60C5

= 0.8096

5 0
3 years ago
A person bought some Australian dollar of NRs 1,50,000 according to the exchange rate. Australian dollar 1 = NRs 77.02. After fi
AlekseyPX

Answer:

  5.26% profit (NRs 7,894.24)

Step-by-step explanation:

The exchange of 1,50,000 NRs to A$ will give ...

  A$ 1/(NRs 77.02) = x /1,50,000

  x = A$ 1,50,000/77.02 = A$ 1947.54 . . . . . (rounded down)

If the Nepali rupees are devalued by 5%, then what did buy A$ 1 will now buy only A$ 0.95. Then the exchange back to NRs will give ...

  (NRs 77.02)/(A$ 0.95) = x/(A$ 1947.54)

  x = NRs (1947.54)(77.02/0.95) = NRs 1,57,894.24

The effective profit is the difference from the amount initially exchanged, NRs 7,894.24, or ...

  (1,57,984.24/1,50,000 -1) × 100% ≈ 5.26%

__

<em>Additional comment</em>

Except for the loss in the exchange due to rounding down, the profit would be 1/0.95 -1 = 5.2632%. Instead, it is 5.2628%. This is why investors move their money to investments that retain their value when the local currency is losing its value.

5 0
2 years ago
Rewrite each fraction with a denominator of 10 7/2=? 3/5=?​
Lady_Fox [76]
The answer is 35/10 and 6/10
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Figure LMNP will be reflected across the y-axis. Place the point on the graph that represents
zimovet [89]

Answer:

If it's reflected on the y-axis, the answer for N would be (-2,-3).

5 0
3 years ago
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