Answer: C. 7.3%
Explanation:
The yield rate is a weighted average of the yields over the years:
= [ (1 * 6%) + (2 * 7%) + (3 * 8%)] / ( 1 + 2 + 3)
= 44%/ 6
= 7.33%
= 7.3%
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer: 59; 53; 52
Explanation: Compared to 59% in 1977, the labor force participation rate for men is now approximately 53% and is expected to decrease through 2024 to 52%.
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
Price Risk, Reinvestment Risk, Investment Horizon and Longer maturity Bond. 
Explanation:
- Price risk is the risk of a decline in a bond's value due to an increase in interest rates. This risk is higher on bonds that have long maturities than on bonds that will mature in the near future.
 - Reinvestment risk is the risk that a decline in interest rates will lead to a decline in income from a bond portfolio. This risk is obviously high on callable bonds. It is also high on short-term bonds because the shorter the bond's maturity, the fewer the years before the relatively high old-coupon bonds will be replaced with new low-coupon issues.
 - Which type of risk is more relevant to an investor depends on the investor's investment horizon, which is the period of time an investor plans to hold a particular investment.
 - Longer maturity bonds have high price risk but low reinvestment risk, while higher coupon bonds have a higher level of reinvestment risk and a lower level of price risk.
 
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
Cash balance is $85,000
Explanation:
In determining the cash balance of the period, we must know how much is the inflow and outflow of the cash for the period and add it or deduct to the beginning balance. It is simply, beginning balance plus inflows less outflows. February is the first month of the operation of Schwenn Enterprises, that only means the possible beginning balance of the cash is the cash investment. So to further discuss it clearly, let’s do the computation.
Beginning balance on February $100,000
Add: inflow
 Cash sales $20,000
Less: outflow
 payment on expenses $35,000
CASH BALANCE AT FEBRUARY 28 $85,000
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
b. deducted from net income whether declared or not
Explanation:
The formula to compute the basic earning per share is shown below:
Basic earning per share = (Net income - preferred stock dividend) ÷ (weighted average of outstanding shares)
In the case of the non- convertible cumulative preferred stock, the dividend should be paid whether the business earns profit or loss. If the business does not earn any profit during a particular year, in that period the dividend amount is carried forward to next year. 
So, the dividend arrears are to be paid to the cumulative preferred stock.