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skad [1K]
4 years ago
9

Which expression is equivalent to log12 (1/8/8w) ?

Mathematics
1 answer:
makkiz [27]4 years ago
5 0
Hello! For this problem we need to make use of two existing logarithmic properties. These are:

1. log \frac{M}{N} is equal to log M-logN
2. log(MN) is equal to log M+logN

Following the first property, we can simplify the expression to log \frac{1}{2}-log(8w).

Then, we will use the second property to the term 8w. The final form of the expression would then be log \frac{1}{2}-(log8+logw) 

ANSWER: log \frac{1}{2}-(log8+logw)  (second option)
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Can You guys help me on these problems
klio [65]

Answer:

5=100

6=900

8=375

Step-by-step explanation:

LxWxH

20x4

300x3

5x5=25 x 15= 375

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose you are interested in selling your home and would like to clear a net value of $300,000. If you have agreed to pay your
QveST [7]

Answer:

<h2>I need to sell the home for the price of $317,460.</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

I need to pay 5.5% of the total to the broker.

I also want to gain $300,000 as a profit. I need to sell the house in such a price, so that after giving the 5.5% to the broker, i also have $300,000.

I need to find the value of 100%, where (100 - 5.5) = 94.5% represents  $300,000.

Hence, 100% = \frac{300000}{94.5} \times 100 = 317460.3.

8 0
3 years ago
Help plzzz thank you !
VashaNatasha [74]

Answer:

a. Ameribank-$15,157.50

b. Capital Two-$4,646.25

Step-by-step explanation:

a. Tad's savings is $15,000, we calculate his total amount at the end of the year for each bank:

#Ameribank

A=P+I=P+PRT\\\\=15000+15000\times 0.0105\times 1\\\\=\$15,157.50

#Huffington( we use the effective rate to calculate the compound amount):

i_m=(1+i/m)^m-1\\\\=(1+0.0095/12)^[12}-1=0.009541\\\\A=P(1+i_m)^n\\\\=15000(1.009541)^1\\\\=\$15,143.12

#Sixth-Third, Take 1 yrs=52 weeks:

i_m=(1+i/m)^m-1\\\\=(1+0.01/52)^{52}-1=0.01005\\\\A=15000(1.01005)^1\\\\=\$15,150.74

#Hence, Ameribank is the best option as his money grows to $15,157.50 which is greater than all the remaining two options.

b. We use the compound interest formula A=P(1+r/n)^{nt} to determine which bank gives the best option:

#Capital Two. r=3.75%, n=12,t=4

A=P(1+r/n)^{nt}\\\\=4000(1+0.0375/12)^{12\times4}\\\\=\$4,646.25

#J.C Morgan, t=2, r=3.55% n=12

A=P(1+r/n)^{nt}\\\\=4000(1+0.0355/12)^{12\times 2}\\\\=\$4,293.87

#Silverman Slacks, n=12,t=3, r=3.65%

A=P(1+r/n)^{nt}\\\\=4000(1+0.0365/12)^{12\times3}\\\\=\$4,462.14

We compare the investment amounts after t years:

Capital>Silver>Morgan=4646.25>4462.14>4293.87

Hence, Capital two is the best option with an investment amount of $4,646.25

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Answer plz plz for brainleiest
Archy [21]

Answer:

-.5

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Make x the subject of the formula 6x+a=5
Tatiana [17]
You would -a to get 6x=5-a then divide by 6 which you would get your final answer which is x=5-a/6
7 0
3 years ago
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