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charle [14.2K]
3 years ago
8

Shawn is a regional sales manager of a popular fortnightly magazine. he sets targets for and reviews the performances of the sal

es representatives of his region. changes in marketing strategies mandated by the marketing team at the magazine's headquarters authorized shawn to be solely responsible to bring about the necessary changes in his region. in the given scenario, shawn is most likely a _____.
Business
1 answer:
Alex777 [14]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: Shawn is most likely a middle manager.

Middle managers are the link between the top level of executive management and the lowers levels in a management hierarchy.

Middle managers are responsible for the junior staff. They are also in charge of implementing the strategies of a company within their region and their benefits are also linked with how efficiently they implement the company’s policy.  

Since Shawn is solely responsible for implementing the marketing strategies of the company in his region and also sets targets and reviews the performance of sales representatives, he is most likely a middle manager.


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American​ Exploration, Inc., a natural gas​ producer, is trying to decide whether to revise its target capital structure. Curren
Marat540 [252]

Answer:

a) 9.00 %

b) 7.80 %

c) yes the weight of the debt increases here is more risk in the investment as the debt payment are mandatory and failing to do so result in bankruptcy while the stock can wait to receive dividends if the income statement are good enough

d) 9.00  %

e) The increase in debt may lñead to an increase in return of the stockholders if they consider the stock riskier than before and will raise their return until the WACC equalize at the initial point beforethe trade-off occurs

Explanation:

a)

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

Ke 0.12

Equity weight 0.5

Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06

Debt Weight = 0.5

WACC = 0.12(0.5) + 0.06(0.5)

WACC 9.00000%

c)

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

Ke 0.12

Equity weight 0.3

Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06

Debt Weight 0.7

WACC = 0.12(0.3) + 0.06(0.7)

WACC 7.80000%

d)

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

<em>Ke 0.16</em>

Equity weight 0.3

Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06

Debt Weight 0.7

WACC = 0.16(0.3) + 0.06(0.7)

WACC 9.00000%

3 0
3 years ago
What term can be used to describe the situation where your fixed and variable expenses are higher than your net income.(1 point)
Pepsi [2]

The term that describes the situation where <em>fixed and variable </em><em>expenses</em><em> are higher than</em> net income is <em>D. dissaving.</em>

Dissaving happens when an individual is spending from either previous savings or borrowing to fund current expenses.

Dissaving is commoner with retirees than those currently employed. But it can also happen to currently-employed persons, whose expenses are more than their incomes. They should find strategies to stop the negative saving. Otherwise, their debts may be overbearing in future.

Thus, dissaving means negative saving or <em>spending more than income.</em>

Learn more: brainly.com/question/13954775

8 0
2 years ago
On June 1, 2015, Ivanhoe Company and Shamrock Company merged to form Bridgeport Inc. A total of 752,000 shares were issued to co
kompoz [17]

Solution:

a-1) Calculation of the number of shares used for calculating Basic Earning per share    

No. of shares                         period        

752000                                    3/12                           188000    

1314000                                    9/12                           985500    

Weighted average No of shares outstanding   1173500

a-2) Calculation of the number of shares used for calculating Diluted Earning per share    

                        No. of shares                 period        

                          752000                   3/12                 188000                                     1314000                    3/12                  328500      with Bonds       1340400                    6/12                670200      

Weighted average No of shares outstanding           1186700   

Each bonds to per converted into 44 common stock

i.e. 600 Bonds *44 common=26400 Potential equity shares

b-1) Calculation of earning figures to be used for calculating Basic Earning per share    

After Tax net Income will be earnings = $1614000      

b-2) Calculation of earning figures to be used for calculating Diluted Earning per share    

After tax net Income                                                   1614000      

Interest for the 2017 =600000*7*6/12   21000      

Tax effect on Interest @40%                     8400      12600                                                                                                 1626600

Earnings = 1626600      

7 0
3 years ago
g Samco signed a 5​-year note payable on January​ 1, 2018​, of $ 475 comma 000. The note requires annual principal payments each
Tanya [424]

Answer:

B. a debit to Interest Expense for $ 42 comma 750.

C. a credit to Cash of $ 137 comma 750.

Explanation:

Payment of Note Payable includes the payment of interest on the outstanding balance and principal amount of the note. In this question it is the first payment of the note payable, so the outstanding balance is the face value of the note, Interest is calculated using this value, A fix payment of $95,000 is also made.

As per given data

Principal Payment = $95,000

First Interest payment = $475,000 x 9% = $42,750

Total Payment = $95,000 + $42,750 = $137,750

Journal Entry for first payment

Dr. Interest Expense $42,750

Dr. Not Payable         $95,000

Cr. Cash                     $137,750

6 0
3 years ago
Open-end mutual funds are more common than closed-end funds. question 5 options:
Tems11 [23]
False. They are, in fact, significantly less common.
4 0
3 years ago
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