3 years ago

What fraction of 1 pint is 1 cup

1 answer:

6 0

1\2 cup is the answer or .5 <span />

You might be interested in

Neporo4naja [7]

<em>We can multiply 2 by 30.45 in order to get 60.90</em>

<h2>Explanation:</h2>

Suppose you have two numbers x and y. We can write an equation such that:

$xy=60.9$

For this equation we have infinitely many solutions. Let's say x equals 2 in this case, so we can isolate y in order to solve this problem:

$xy=60.90 \\ \\ If \ x=2 \\ \\ 2y=60.90 \\ \\ y=\frac{60.90}{2} \\ \\ y=30.45$

So <em>we can multiply 2 by 30.45 in order to get 60.90</em>

<h2>Learn more:</h2>

Identity property of multiplication: brainly.com/question/4677597

#LearnWithBrainly

3 0

3 years ago

beks73 [17]

Answer:

I believe the answer would be using the form of y= mx+b, b is y intercept and slope is m. It would end up looking like y= 2/3x+1

Step-by-step explanation:

I think this is how a linear equation looks like but I'm a little rusty. If you have notes it probably says what I already stated. Good luck! :)

5 0

3 years ago

algol13

-15m -30 = -12m +6
3m = 36
m= 36/3 =12

4 0

3 years ago

saveliy_v [14]

1 equals 0.3
2 equals 1.25

6 0

3 years ago

brilliants [131]

There are 32 guests.
Proof: 1*8*2=32.

4 0

3 years ago