See the attached picture:
Domain: (-infinity, +infinity)
range: (0, +infinity)
Answer:
a) ![v = \frac{[L]}{[T]} = LT^{-1}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20v%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B%5BL%5D%7D%7B%5BT%5D%7D%20%3D%20LT%5E%7B-1%7D)
b) ![a = \frac{[L}{T}^{-1}]}{{T}}= L T^{-1} T^{-1}= L T^{-2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20a%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B%5BL%7D%7BT%7D%5E%7B-1%7D%5D%7D%7B%7BT%7D%7D%3D%20L%20T%5E%7B-1%7D%20T%5E%7B-1%7D%3D%20L%20T%5E%7B-2%7D)
c) ![\int v dt = s(t) = [L]=L](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cint%20v%20dt%20%3D%20s%28t%29%20%3D%20%5BL%5D%3DL)
d) ![\int a dt = v(t) = [L][T]^{-1}=LT^{-1}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cint%20a%20dt%20%3D%20v%28t%29%20%3D%20%5BL%5D%5BT%5D%5E%7B-1%7D%3DLT%5E%7B-1%7D)
e) ![\frac{da}{dt}= \frac{[L][T]^{-2}}{T} = [L][T]^{-2} [T]^{-1} = LT^{-3}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cfrac%7Bda%7D%7Bdt%7D%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B%5BL%5D%5BT%5D%5E%7B-2%7D%7D%7BT%7D%20%3D%20%5BL%5D%5BT%5D%5E%7B-2%7D%20%5BT%5D%5E%7B-1%7D%20%3D%20LT%5E%7B-3%7D)
Step-by-step explanation:
Let define some notation:
[L]= represent longitude , [T] =represent time
And we have defined:
s(t) a position function


Part a
If we do the dimensional analysis for v we got:
![v = \frac{[L]}{[T]} = LT^{-1}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20v%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B%5BL%5D%7D%7B%5BT%5D%7D%20%3D%20LT%5E%7B-1%7D)
Part b
For the acceleration we can use the result obtained from part a and we got:
![a = \frac{[L}{T}^{-1}]}{{T}}= L T^{-1} T^{-1}= L T^{-2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20a%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B%5BL%7D%7BT%7D%5E%7B-1%7D%5D%7D%7B%7BT%7D%7D%3D%20L%20T%5E%7B-1%7D%20T%5E%7B-1%7D%3D%20L%20T%5E%7B-2%7D)
Part c
From definition if we do the integral of the velocity respect to t we got the position:

And the dimensional analysis for the position is:
![\int v dt = s(t) = [L]=L](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cint%20v%20dt%20%3D%20s%28t%29%20%3D%20%5BL%5D%3DL)
Part d
The integral for the acceleration respect to the time is the velocity:

And the dimensional analysis for the position is:
![\int a dt = v(t) = [L][T]^{-1}=LT^{-1}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cint%20a%20dt%20%3D%20v%28t%29%20%3D%20%5BL%5D%5BT%5D%5E%7B-1%7D%3DLT%5E%7B-1%7D)
Part e
If we take the derivate respect to the acceleration and we want to find the dimensional analysis for this case we got:
![\frac{da}{dt}= \frac{[L][T]^{-2}}{T} = [L][T]^{-2} [T]^{-1} = LT^{-3}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cfrac%7Bda%7D%7Bdt%7D%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B%5BL%5D%5BT%5D%5E%7B-2%7D%7D%7BT%7D%20%3D%20%5BL%5D%5BT%5D%5E%7B-2%7D%20%5BT%5D%5E%7B-1%7D%20%3D%20LT%5E%7B-3%7D)
7
When you do 27 times x squared times z all over -3, then times that by x squared times z to the sixth power, you get -9x^4z^7
It would be take upto 999 revolutions.
<em>Let try to solve it,</em>
Let n represent number of revolutions.
We are asked to find the number of revolutions it will take for a car wheel of diameter 30 in. to travel a distance of one mile.
1 mile = 63360 inches.
We will use circumference of circle formula to solve our given problem.
Circumference = pi*d , where, D represents diameter of circle.
Now, we will set the product of n and circumference of circle equal to 63360 inches as:
pi*22*n= 63360
n= 63360*7/ 22*22
n= 443520/444
n= 998.91
Therefore It would be take upto 999 revolutions.
Learn more about Circumference of circle on:
brainly.com/question/18571680
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