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Dmitry [639]
3 years ago
8

A recipe calls for 1 part beans to 1-1/2 parts rice. If 1-1/2 parts of beans are used how much rice should be used

Mathematics
2 answers:
natima [27]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

2\frac{1}{4}  part of rice should be used.

Step-by-step explanation:

A recipe calls for 1 part beans to 1\frac{1}{2} part rice.

If 1\frac{1}{2} parts of beans used,

rice should be = 1\frac{1}{2} × 1\frac{1}{2}

                         = \frac{3}{2} × \frac{3}{2}  

                         = \frac{9}{4}                              

                         = 2\frac{1}{4} part or 2.25 parts rice

2\frac{1}{4}  part of rice should be used.

Maurinko [17]3 years ago
5 0
I think the answer is 2 parts rice. If you added half to the beans, do it to the rice too.
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According to the statement

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