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trapecia [35]
4 years ago
7

Dalton Company uses the allowance method to account for uncollectible receivables. Dalton has determined that the Irish Company

account is uncollectible. To write-off this account, Dalton should debit A. Bad Debt Expense and credit Accounts ReceivableB. Bad Debt Expense and credit Allowance for Doubtful AccountsC. Allowance for Doubtful Accounts and credit Accounts ReceivableD. Accounts receivable and credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts
Business
1 answer:
pychu [463]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

C. Debit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts and credit Accounts Receivable

Explanation:

To write-off an account under the allowance method, the company will decrease both, the allowance and the receivables. This will leave the net receivable at the same value before the write-off. It will have no impact on the net income as the account used are an asset account and contra-asset account.

The company will never write-off against bad debt expense under the allowance method. That is done in the direct method.

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An appraiser completes an appraisal for a homeowner in preparation for obtaining a loan. The appraiser provides a letter report
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The situation here is that the appraiser is:

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How much total interest will she pay over the course of the mortage for this house
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Two investment advisers are comparing performance. One averaged a 19% return and the other a 16% return. However, the beta of th
pentagon [3]

Answer (A):

Need more data to select the better adviser

<u>Explanation: </u>

Adviser A averaged 19% return on the investment which is more than that of Adviser B who averaged 16% return on investment. However, adviser A has a beta of 1.5 which is also greater than that of Adviser B who has a beta of 1. This means that adviser A made a more riskier investment and hence a higher average return on investment. We need more data to tell which adviser performed better in relation to each other.

Answer (B):

Investment Adviser B

<u>Explanation:</u>

R_{f} = T-bill rate = 6%

R_{m} = Market return = 14%

R_{m} - R_{f} = Market risk premium = 14% - 6% = 8%

ER_{a} = Average Return by Adviser A =19%

\beta _{a} = Beta of Adviser A = 1.5

ER_{b} = Average Return by Adviser B =16%

\beta _{b} = Beta of Adviser B = 1

CAPM Equation is ER_{i} = R_{f} +\beta  (R_{m} - R_{f} ) +\alpha

<u>For Adviser A</u>

ER_{i} = 6 + 1.5 (14 - 6) = 18%

The expected average return for the investment is 18% which means that Adviser A over performed the market by 1 %

<u>For Adviser B</u>

ER_{i} = 6 + 1 (14 - 6) = 14%

The expected average return for the investment is 14% which means that the Adviser B over performed the market by 2 %

Clearly, Adviser B performed better than Adviser A.

Answer (C):

Adviser B

<u>Explanation:</u>

<u />

In this part, the R_{f} = 3 % and R_{m} = 15%

All else remains the same

We make similar calculation as in part B

4 0
4 years ago
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