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grin007 [14]
4 years ago
15

Many years after constructing a plant asset, management spent a significant sum on the asset. Which of the following types of ex

penditures should be capitalized in this instance:
(1) an expenditure for routine maintenance that increases the useful life compared with deferring the maintenance,

(2) an expenditure that increases the useful life of the asset compared with the original estimate assuming normal maintenance at the required intervals,

(3) an expenditure that increases the utility of the asset.

(1) (2) (3)
Yes

Yes

Yes

No

Yes

Yes

No

No

Yes

No

Yes

No
Business
2 answers:
ryzh [129]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

(1) NO As this maintenaince will be done in order to keep the current value It is an expenditure to avoid decay of the plant assets

(2) Yes it should be capitalizeds as increase the useful life of the assets (thus the depreciation will change as well as the useful years remaining increases

(3) Yes it should be. As increase the utility it will have a higher future positive cashflow in the future.

Explanation:

We are asked under which circumnstances the amont spend in the maintenance or overhaul should increase the plant asset account or be considered expense of the period.

Law Incorporation [45]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

1st one is no. Maintenance expenses do not add any value to the asset and the useful life does not change because of such improvements. Moreover, this has no impact on the depreciation too.

2nd one is yes. It should be capitalised as it directly increases the useful life time of the asset. This suggest that the improvement also changes the productivity of the asset and has an impact on the depreciation as well.

3rd one is Yes as well. When the "utility" of an asset is increased, this suggest that it's ability to generate future cash flows has also increased as well. Because of that, the expenditure must be capitalised and the useful life and the depreciation has to be adjusted accordingly as necessary.

Explanation:

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Ruth Company showed the following balances at the end of its first year.
Tom [10]

<u>Answer:</u>Option<u> </u>$29,400

<u>Explanation:</u>

The credit items that will be shown on the trial balance are as follows

Accounts payable       2800

Notes Payable              4200

Denton Capital              1400

Revenues                     21000

Total Credits in             29400

trial balance

In a trial balance the total debit and credit items should balance. Trial balance has all the items that are posted in the general ledger account. It is a book keeping work sheet that contains the balance of all ledgers. At end of reporting time trial balance is prepared by the company.

3 0
3 years ago
Hargrave professional group performs legal services on account. what is the effect of this transaction on the balance sheet equa
r-ruslan [8.4K]

Hargrave professional group performs legal services on account. The effect of this transaction on the balance sheet equation for Hargrave is Increase in assets.

<h3>What is Asset?</h3>

An asset is considered a resource of the business which has an economic value in the future of the business and helps business activities to take place smoothly.

Hargrave professional group performs legal services on account which reflects the Buying and sales of goods and services on credit. So this refers to the incoming cash in the business which indicates the effect of this transaction on the balance sheet equation for Hargrave is an Increase in assets.

Learn more about Asset, here:

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8 0
2 years ago
Which of these is an example of a variable expense calculated in an organizational budget?
Ierofanga [76]
In an organizational budget, variable expenses are the total cost that depended on the amount of goods produced.
Example of variable expenses are:
- Raw material expenses
- Cost of plastic to make a handphone case
- Cost of carrots if the company is selling carrot pies
- etc
8 0
3 years ago
The accounting department of your company has just delivered a draft of the current year's financial statements to you. The summ
marishachu [46]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:-

Incorrect

ROA = Net Income ÷ Average assets

= $101,900 ÷ (($550,000 + $573,000) ÷ 2)

= $101,900 ÷ $561,500

= 0.18

ROE = Net Income ÷ Average equity

= $101,900 ÷ (($340,000 + 356,000) ÷ 2)

= $101,900 ÷ $348,000

= 0.29

Debt Ratio = Total debt ÷ Average Assets

= $217,000 ÷ (($550,000 + $573,000) ÷ 2)

= $217,000 ÷ $561,500

= 0.39

EPS = Net Income ÷ Number of Common Shares

= $101,900 ÷ 22,000

= $4.63

Correct

ROA = Net Income ÷ Average assets

= ($101,900 - $8,500) ÷ (($550,000 + $573,000 - $8,500) ÷ 2)

= $93,400 ÷ $557,250

= 0.17

ROE = Net Income ÷ Average equity

= ($101,900 - $8,500) ÷ (($340,000 + 356,000 - $8,500) ÷ 2)

= $93,400 ÷ $343,750

= 0.27

Debt Ratio = Total debt ÷ Average Assets

= $217,000 ÷ (($550,000 + $573,000 - $8,500) ÷ 2)

= $217,000 ÷ $276,500

= 0.78

EPS = Net Income ÷ Number of Common Shares

= ($101,900 - $8,500) ÷ 22,000

= $4.25

5 0
3 years ago
Big Canyon Enterprises has bonds on the market making annual payments, with 17 years to maturity, a par value of $1,000, and a p
elixir [45]

Answer:

7.8%

Explanation:

For computing the coupon rate first we have to determine the PMT by using the PMT formula which is shown in the attachment below:

Given that,  

Present value = $969

Future value or Face value = $1,000  

RATE =8.1%

NPER = 17 years

The formula is shown below:  

= PMT(RATE;NPER;-PV;FV;type)  

The present value come in negative  

So, after applying the above formula, the PMT is $77.58

Now the coupon rate is

= $77.58 ÷ $1,000

= 7.8%

5 0
3 years ago
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