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Minchanka [31]
3 years ago
15

What is a way to write 11 more than twice x is less than 44

Mathematics
2 answers:
madam [21]3 years ago
4 0

(2x) + 11 < 44

x is multiplied by two because we are looking for twice of x. 11 is added to the 2x because we are looking for eleven more than the sum of twice of x. Since 2x + 11 is less than 44, we use the lesser than ( < ) symbol.

Blizzard [7]3 years ago
3 0

11x3+10

X would be 10 and you could multiply 11 3 times before it would become 44 if you multiplied 11 by 4. And x would be 10 instead of 11 because it’s asking for a number less than 44 so the total for the equation I gave is 43

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Alison is playing a video game. At the end of each level, the player is given either a bag of gold or a magic wand.
Shkiper50 [21]

Outcome Bag of Gold Magic Wand

Relative frequency 0.32 0.68

The relative frequency of getting a bag of gold is .......... reasonably close

.32 is close to 30% so

Alison's claim about the theoretical probability is likely to be 2............true

Further, this means that the theoretical probability of getting a magic wand is most likely 3............1 - 30% = 70%

5 0
2 years ago
Assume the parent function has been shifted up
mars1129 [50]

Answer:

If y=(x-2)^2+4 is the transformed function, then the parent function y=x^2 has been shifted up vertically by 4 units and horizontally right by 2 units

Step-by-step explanation:

Assume the function is y=f(x) is the parent function.

A vertical shift,b units up  will transform the function to y=f(x)+b .

A horizontal shift a units.

y=f(x-a)+b

For instance, if y=x^2, b=4, and a=2 units.  

Then the transformed function becomes:

y=(x-2)^2+4

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The graph illustrates a normal distribution for the prices paid for a particular model of HD television. The mean price paid is
marysya [2.9K]

Answer:

(a) 0.14%

(b) 2.28%

(c) 48%

(d) 68%

(e) 34%

(f) 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

Let <em>X</em> be a random variable representing the prices paid for a particular model of HD television.

It is provided that <em>X</em> follows a normal distribution with mean, <em>μ</em> = $1600 and standard deviation, <em>σ</em> = $100.

(a)

Compute the probability of buyers who paid more than $1900 as follows:

P(X>1900)=P(\frac{X-\mu}{\sigma}>\frac{1900-1600}{100})

                   =P(Z>3)\\=1-P(Z

*Use a <em>z</em>-table.

Thus, the approximate percentage of buyers who paid more than $1900 is 0.14%.

(b)

Compute the probability of buyers who paid less than $1400 as follows:

P(X

                   =P(Z

*Use a <em>z</em>-table.

Thus, the approximate percentage of buyers who paid less than $1400 is 2.28%.

(c)

Compute the probability of buyers who paid between $1400 and $1600 as follows:

P(1400

                              =P(-2

*Use a <em>z</em>-table.

Thus, the approximate percentage of buyers who paid between $1400 and $1600 is 48%.

(d)

Compute the probability of buyers who paid between $1500 and $1700 as follows:

P(1500

                              =P(-1

*Use a <em>z</em>-table.

Thus, the approximate percentage of buyers who paid between $1500 and $1700 is 68%.

(e)

Compute the probability of buyers who paid between $1600 and $1700 as follows:

P(1600

                              =P(0

*Use a <em>z</em>-table.

Thus, the approximate percentage of buyers who paid between $1600 and $1700 is 34%.

(f)

Compute the probability of buyers who paid between $1600 and $1900 as follows:

P(1600

                              =P(0

*Use a <em>z</em>-table.

Thus, the approximate percentage of buyers who paid between $1600 and $1900 is 50%.

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OLEGan [10]

Answer:

a) 5(6) = 30

b) 3.5(6) = 21

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Step-by-step explanation:

c) 30 + 39 + 21 + 36 + 27 = 153

7 0
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yulyashka [42]

Answer:

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So the volume of a cone is πr^2 * h / 3

r = 15.072 / π

h = 55

15.072 / π squared * π = 227.165184π

227.165184π * 55 / 3 = 4164.69504π

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