Answer: Please refer to Explanation.
Explanation:
Your question was incomplete so I attached the missing details.
The Carrying Amount of the Division has to be ascertained to move forward as it is needed in calculating the loss on Impairment. It is calculated by subtracting Goodwill from the Net Assets.
= 496 - 214
= $282 million
Calculating the Loss on impairment is done by the following formula,
= Market Price - Carrying Amount of the Division (net of Goodwill) - carrying value of Goodwill
= 335 - 282 - 214
= -$161 million.
Journal Entry
DR Loss on Impairment $161 million
CR Goodwill $161 million
(To record the loss on Impairment)
2 everything is technically about technology
Answer:
A. Asset exchange transaction
B. Asset exchange transaction
C. Investing activity
D. Investing activity.
Explanation:
In the question, the Riley company paid cash to Smally company, and the Smally company paid the amount for the land.
So,
A. For Riley company, it is an asset exchange transaction as the asset exchanges between Riley and Smally company.
B. For Smally company it is an asset exchange transaction as the asset are the exchange between Riley and Smally company.
C. Investing activity. As the Riley company deals in the purchase and the sale of the fixed assets.
D. Investing activity. As the company deals in the purchase and the sale of the fixed assets.
Answer:
From this information one can conclude that last period the variable overhead efficiency (quantity) variance was <u>unfavorable.</u>
Explanation:
The variable overhead efficiency variance measures the difference between the actual and budgeted hours worked with respect to standard variable overhead rate per hour.
Variable overhead efficiency variance can be calculated thus:
Actual labor hours less budgeted labor hours x Hourly rate for standard variable overhead
If the time it takes to manufacture a product and the time budgeted for it matches or performs well, the labor efficiency is favorable.
Variable overhead efficiency variance is deemed unfavorable when it takes the company more time than budgeted to produce. This also shows labor efficiency variance was unfavorable.
If the original price of Dima’s skirt was $54, the amount that she have saved at the store was option(b)i.e, $1.80.
Let's just take the sales price of the skirt Dima purchased from the discount shop as the rate of the other retailer is not provided.
Original price: $54
Discount rate: 30%
$54 x 30% = $16.20 value of the discount
$54 - 16.20 = $37.80 discounted price.
Since Dima's friend told her she could have had a better deal at a different store, this means that the discount rate is higher than 30%. i.e, the discount is 33.33%
$54 x 33.33% = $17.99 value of the discount
$54 - 17.99 = $36.00 discounted price.
Discount store: $37.80
Different store: $36.00
The different store sales price is cheaper by $1.80
Therefore, she could have saved $1.80 at the store her friend suggested.
To know more about discount rate refer to: brainly.com/question/13660799
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