Answer: (B) Location economies
Explanation:
According to the question, the gear-one autos inc. basically acquire the benefits of the location economies. The location economies is effective strategy in the economics used in an organization for determining the location.
The main aim of the location economics is that it producing the identical products by using the consistent strategy. The location economics helps the organization in the latest development.
Therefore, Option (B) is correct.
Answer:
monthly payment = $10,009 (rounded to nearest dollar)
Explanation:
A 3/1 adjustable rate mortgage (ARM) means that the monthly payment will be fixed during the first 3 years only. Then they should vary, although the variance is generally upwards. The monthly interest can be calculated by using the present value of an annuity formula:
monthly payment = present value of the loan / annuity factor
- present value of the loan = $2,225,000 x 85% = $1,891,250
- PV annuity factor, 0.40625%, 360 periods = 188.9615
monthly payment = $1,891,250 / 188.9615 = $10,008.65256 ≈ $10,009
Answer:
$1,035,459.51
Explanation:
First we must determine the issuing value:
- cash flow 1 = $60,000
- cash flow 1 = $60,000
- cash flow 1 = $60,000
- cash flow 1 = $60,000
- cash flow 1 = $1,060,000
using an excel spreadsheet to calculate the bond's price with a discount value of 5%:
the bonds were sold at $1,043,294.77
the effective interest expense = bond's price x market interest = $1,043,294.77 x 5% = $52,164.74
bond's value = bond's price - (coupon payment - effective interest) = $1,043,294.77 - ($60,000 - $52,164.74) = $1,035,459.51
Answer:
50
Explanation:
According to the question, The computation of the quantity produce is shown below:
Here we use the differentiation LRAC to zero
From above calculation it can be concluded that the each firm would be produced the quantity of long run equilibrium for 50
Hence, the first option is correct
Answer:
8.78
Explanation:
The computation of the cash cycle is given below;
We know that
Cash cycle = Inventory conversion period + Receivables conversion period - Payables conversion period.
Here
1. Inventory conversion period = Avg. Inventory ÷ (COGS ÷365)
= (11,000) ÷ (395000 ÷ 365)
= 10.16
2. Receivables conversion period = Avg. Accounts Receivable ÷ (Credit Sales × 365)
= (27000/520000) × 365
= 18.95
3. Payables conversion period = Avg. Accounts Payable ÷ (Purchases × 365)
= (22000 ÷ 395000) × 365
= 20.33
Now the cash cycle is
= 10.16 + 18.95 - 20.33
= 8.78
