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PIT_PIT [208]
3 years ago
11

Wнaт'ѕ тнe eхpreѕѕιon υѕιng eхponenтѕ м.м.м.p.p.p.p.p.p

Mathematics
2 answers:
PtichkaEL [24]3 years ago
8 0
(m*m*m)*(p*p*p*p*p*p) is (m^1*m^1*m^1)*(p^1*p^1*p^1*p^1*p^1*p^1) so what I'm trying to say is m equals 1+1+1 and p equals 1+1+1+1+1+1.
____ [38]3 years ago
5 0
\bf m\cdot m\cdot m\cdot m\cdot p\cdot p\cdot p\cdot p\cdot p\cdot p
\\ \quad \\
m^1\cdot m^1\cdot m^1\cdot m^1\cdot p^1\cdot p^1\cdot p^1\cdot p^1\cdot p^1\cdot p^1
\\ \quad \\
m^{1+1+1}p^{1+1+1+1+1+1}\implies m^{\boxed{?}}p^{\boxed{?}}
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The value of the inverse function at x = 32 will be 16. Then the correct option is D.

<h3>What is a function?</h3>

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The function is given below.

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More about the function link is given below.

brainly.com/question/5245372

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