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natulia [17]
3 years ago
7

What is risk, as pertains to investing?

Business
2 answers:
Digiron [165]3 years ago
7 0

The correct answer is C. The chance you take that your investments will lose their value.

Explanation:

In finances, to invest means to spend money in shares, properties or similar expecting to get more money from this; because they represent a profit or you can sell them at a higher price and obtain money. This also represents a risk; this risk can be explained as the shares, properties, or assets can lose their value due to economic crises, changes in the stock market, among others, and therefore you will not obtain profit. For example, if you invest in properties, and a natural disaster occurs in the area and you can lose the money invested. Thus, risk in relation to investing means the chance you take that your investments will lose their value.

Archy [21]3 years ago
3 0
C:the chance you take that your investments will lose their value
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GDP is the market value of: A. Resources (land, labor, capita, and entrepreneurship) in an economy in a given year B. All final
frutty [35]

Answer:

B) All final goods and services produced in an economy in a given year

Explanation:

That's the definition of GDP, gross domestic product. By virtue of the name, it's the total product (output) of a given economy. It's measured through the values of all final goods and services, so as to not count the same good or service twice.

3 0
2 years ago
Suppose winston's annual salary as an accountant is $60,000, and his financial assets generate $4,000 per year in interest. one
DedPeter [7]

Economic profit is calculated as:

Economic profit = Total Revenues – Total Cost

Total cost both includes explicit and implicit cost. In this case, the explicit cost is $8,000 while the implicit cost is $64,000. Explicit cost is a direct payment made to run the business while implicit cost is the opportunity as accountant that is lost. Therefore,

Economic profit = $150,000 – ($8,000 + $64,000)

<span>Economic profit = $78,000</span>

6 0
3 years ago
g The Ricardian equivalence states that if the government cuts taxes without changing current or future expenditure then: a) hou
Aleks [24]

Answer:

b) households will save more because they will expect higher taxes in the future

Explanation:

The Ricardian Equivalence proposition is one of the pillars of classical economics, which sadly has proven to not work very well in the real world. According to classical economists, and their quantity theory of money plus the Ricardian Equivalence, recessions do not exist because it is impossible for them to exist. But in the real world, that is not true. Recessions exist, e.g. the US is in a recession since the first quarter of 2020 (even before the current health crisis). When real people lose their jobs or are afraid to lose their jobs, their spending habits change.

On the other hand, when real people get a tax refund or tax cut, they generally spend it, they will not save it to pay future taxes. That is why car sales increase during February after checks form the IRS are handed out.

Theoretically, classical economics is great. The problem is that we are human beings, and as such, our behavior cannot be controlled or determined by what we should or should not do. This is exactly why the velocity of money (quantitative theory of money) is not constant.

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose Cook Plus manufactures cast iron skillets. One model is a​ 10-inch skillet that sells for $ 24. Cook Plus projects sales
ioda

Answer:

Production= 750 units

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Cook Plus projects sales of 675 ​10-inch skillets per month.

Cook Plus has 60 ​10-inch skillets in inventory at the beginning of July but wants to have an ending inventory equal to 20​% of the next​ month's sales.

TO calculate the production required, we need to use the following formula.

Production= sales + desired ending inventory - beginning inventory

Production= 675 + (0.2*675) - 60

Production= 750 units

4 0
3 years ago
A client with a skin infection reports an itching sensation associated with pain at the site of infection. The assessment findin
Nimfa-mama [501]

Answer:

This patient could possible have <em>Tinea Pedis</em>

Explanation:

Tinea Pedis is a contagious fungal infection caused by dermatophyte fungus such as "Epidermophyton Floccosum". This type of infection is more common in places with tropical weather. It mostly affects young males, but it can also affect females and children.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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