Answer:
C. Fixed Interval
Explanation:
"Fixed Interval" is a type of <em>Reinforcement Schedule. </em>The "reward" in the situation above is the<em> salary given to the employees</em> during Wednesdays. As noticed, their productivity increases over the week, with the peak on Wednesday.
The<u> "peak" of productivity</u> is the<u> exhibited behavior during pay day.</u> They try to work hard in order to receive a salary. <em>They become more inspired to work during the salary day.</em> It is followed by<em> </em><em>less productivity on Thursdays</em><em> </em>because they have already been rewarded.
Such reinforcement schedule is called the "fixed interval." This also means that their productivity will not increase if they will not be paid.
So, this explains the answer.
Answer:
(a) 0.7
(b) 3.33
(c) -$210
(d) -$147
(e) -$1 trillion
Explanation:
(a) Marginal propensity to consume (MPC) = 0.7
(b) Multiplier of this economy:
= 3.33
(c) Decrease government purchases by $300 billion,
Initial change in consumption = Change in government purchases × MPC
= $300 × 0.7
= -$210 billion
(d) This decreases income yet again, causing a second change in consumption equal to:
= Initial change in consumption × MPC
= -$210 × 0.7
= -$147 billion
(e) The total change in demand resulting from the initial change in government spending is:
= Change in government purchases × Multiplier
= $300 × 3.33
= -$1 trillion
Answer:
Net present value at 8%=($42510)
Explanation:
Explanation- Net present value = Present value of cash inflows – Total outflows
={(19000*6.7100) - $170000}
=$127490- $170000
= ($42510)
Annual net cash inflows = Net income+ Depreciation
= $4000+$15000
= $19000
Straight line Method:-
= Cost of asset- Salvage value of asset/No. of useful life (years)
=($170000-$20000)/10 years
=$150000/10 years = $15000
Net present value at 3%=($7926)
Explanation- Net present value = Present value of cash inflows – Total outflows
={(19000*8.5302) - $170000}
=$162074- $170000
= ($7926)
Annual net cash inflows = Net income+ Depreciation
= $4000+$15000
= $19000
Straight line Method:-
= Cost of asset- Salvage value of asset/No. of useful life (years)
=($170000-$20000)/10 years
=$150000/10 years = $15000
Answer:
elastic, because many other firms produce the same standardized product
Explanation:
A good has perfect price elasticity when a change in price leads to an infinite change of quantity demanded.
A perfect competition is when there are many buyers of homogenous goods and services. The sellers are price takers; prices are set by the market force.
A perfect competition has perfect price elasticity because goods sold are standardised and identical with other goods in the market. If the seller increases its price, it's demand would fall to zero as consumers would shift demand to other subsituite goods.
I hope my answer helps you.
