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Lorico [155]
3 years ago
7

Using the data below, determine the angle for the part of the pie chart the represents the people who prefer dogs?

Mathematics
2 answers:
posledela3 years ago
7 0

Answer:get your money up ohh and its 6.7

Step-by-step explanation:

Delicious77 [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

172.8°

Step-by-step explanation:

the answer is in the picture

please like and Mark as brainliest

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Is the ordered pair (2,1) the solution the the equation y=1-x
AleksAgata [21]
(x,y)
(2,1)
sub 2 for x and 1 for y and see if you get a true statemtn

2=x
y=1
1=1-2
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no it is not a soluiton
4 0
3 years ago
In order to study the color preferences of people in his town, Andrew samples the population by dividing the residents by region
emmainna [20.7K]

Answer:

Cluster sampling

Step-by-step explanation:

Cluster sampling refers to the sampling that is used in market analysis. It is used when a researcher can not obtain information as a whole for the population but may obtain information through the groups or clusters

In the given case since andrew divides the residents through regions so this reflected the cluster sampling method

3 0
3 years ago
How do you find the slope of a line?<br><br> (Change in Y / Change in X)
sukhopar [10]
In order to find the slope of a line, u must use the slope formula. Which is (y2-y1/x2-x1). For example if you had a set of coordinates that are (6,4) and (2,8) you would first sub the 8 from4 which gives you 4. The u do the same with 2 and 6 which gives u 4. After that you divide 4 by 4. and your answer is 1
8 0
3 years ago
It has 2 more vertex than an octagon and 2 fewer sides then a hendecagon
kondaur [170]
It's a hexagon it has 6 sides

4 0
3 years ago
How do you do these questions?
Doss [256]

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) Fₙ₋₁ > 0, so Fₙ₊₁ > Fₙ.  Each term is bigger than the one before it, so the function is increasing, meaning the series will diverge to infinity.

(b) Fₙ₊₁ / Fₙ = (Fₙ + Fₙ₋₁) / Fₙ

Divide.

Fₙ₊₁ / Fₙ = 1 + (Fₙ₋₁ / Fₙ)

Rewrite the second fraction using negative exponent.

Fₙ₊₁ / Fₙ = 1 + (Fₙ / Fₙ₋₁)⁻¹

Take the limit of both sides as n approaches infinity.

lim(n→∞) Fₙ₊₁ / Fₙ = 1 + lim(n→∞) (Fₙ / Fₙ₋₁)⁻¹

Substitute with φ.

φ = 1 + φ⁻¹

Solve.

φ² = φ + 1

φ² − φ − 1 = 0

φ = [ -(-1) ± √((-1)² − 4(1)(-1)) ] / 2(1)

φ = (1 ± √5) / 2

Since the ratio can't be negative:

φ = (1 + √5) / 2

4 0
3 years ago
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